WP/8166/2024 of ARAPPOR IYAKKAM Vs THE DIRECTOR
2026:MHC:1636
W.P.No.8166 of 2024 etc.
IN THE HIGH COURT OF JUDICATURE AT MADRAS
RESERVED ON : 15.04.2026
DELIVERED ON : 29.04.2026
CORAM :
THE HONOURABLE MR. SUSHRUT ARVIND DHARMADHIKARI,
CHIEF JUSTICE
AND
THE HONOURABLE MR.JUSTICE G.ARUL MURUGAN
W.P.No.8166 of 2024; W.P.(Crl.) No.396 of 2025
and W.P.(MD) No.26676 of 2025
and WP (Crl.) MP No.184 of 2025
W.P.No.8166 of 2024
Arappor Iyakkam,
Rep. by its Managing Trustee
Jayaram Venkatesan,
No.7, Second Floor, Sathya Plaza,
Dr.Thirumoorthy Nagar Main Road,
Nungambakkam, Chennai-600 034.
Petitioner
Vs
1.The Director
Directorate of Vigilance and
Anti-Corruption,
No.293, MKN Road, Alandur,
Chennai-600 016.
2.The Secretary to Government,
Public Department,
Secretariat, Chennai-600 009.
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3.V.Kasi
No.21/10,Venkata Rathinam Road,
Teynampet, Chennai-18.
4.Rajesh Lakhoni,
Chairman and Managiing Director,
144, Anna Salai, TANGEDCO,
Chennai-600 002.
5.V.Senthil Balaji
S/o.Velusamy,
No.27,Mullai Illam,
Dr.Dgs Dhinakaran Salai,
Chennai-28.
Respondents
PRAYER : Petition filed under Article 226 of the Constitution of India
seeking issuance of a writ of mandamus d irecting the 1st respondent
to register an FIR on basis of the petitioner’s complaint dated
06.07.2023 and to constitute a Special Investigation Team by this
Court and consequently direct that Special Investigation Team to
conduct a time-bound independent, High Court-monitored fair
investigation under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988; Indian
Penal Code and other connected Acts.
For Petitioner: Dr.V.Suresh
For Respondents: Mr.N.R.Elango, Senior Counsel
for Mr.E.Raj Thilak
and Mr.K.M.D.Muhilan
Additional Public Prosecutors for
R1
Mr.P.Kumaresan,
Additional Advocate General
assisted by Ms.E.Ranganayaki,
AGP for R2
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Mr.J.Srinivasa Mohan
for M/s.TVJ Associates
for R3
R4 - No Appearance
Mr.V.Karthic
Senior Counsel
for Mr.Senthil.S. for R5
W.P.(Crl.) No.396 of 2025:
E.Saravanan
Deputy Secretary AIADMK
Advocate Wing,
3/9, Central Jail Backside Road,
Hasthampatty,
Salem-636 007
Petitioner
Vs
1.The Director
Directorate of Vigilance
and Anti-Corruption,
No.293, M.N.K.Road, Alandur,
Chennai-600 016
2.The Superintendent of Police
Chennai City Range,
Vigilance and Anti-Corruption,
Chennai-600 016
3.The Chairman and Managing Director,
Tamil Nadu Generation and Distribution
Corporation Limited (TANGEDCO),
144, Anna Salai,
Chenani-600 002
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4.The Tender Inviting Authority
Tamil Nadu Generation and Distribution
Corporation Limited (TANGEDCO),
144, Anna Salai,
Chennai-600 002
5.The Tender Scrutiny Committee
Tamil Nadu Generation and Distribution
Corporation Limited (TANGEDCO)
144,Anna Salai, Chennai-600 002
6.V.Senthil Balaji
S/o.Velusamy,
No.27, Mullai Illam,
Dr.DGS Dhinakaran Salai,
Chennai-600 028
7.V.Kasi
No.21/10, Venkata Rathinam Road,
Teynampet, Chennai-600 018
Respondents
PRAYER : Petition filed under Article 226 of the Constitution of India
seeking issuance of a writ of mandamus t o direct the 1st respondent
to register FIR on the representation dated 28.05.2025, to constitute a
Special Investigation Team to conduct a time bound investigation.
For Petitioner: Mr.V.Raghavachari
Senior Counsel
for Mr.A.G.Vedavikas
For Respondents: Mr.N.R.Elango
Senior Counsel
for Mr.E.Raj Thilak
and Mr.K.M.D.Muhilan
Additional Public Prosecutors
for R1 and R2
Mr.P.S.Raman
Advocate General
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assisted by
Mr.D.R.Arun Kumar
Standing Counsel
for R3 to R5
Mr.V.Karthic
Senior Counsel
for Mr.Senthil.S.
for R6
W.P.(MD) No.26676 of 2025:
Rajkumar
S/o.Raja,
No.469, Maruthinagar,
Meikilarpatti, Usilampatti Taluk,
Madurai District.
Petitioner
Vs
1.The Chief Secretary to Government,
The Secretariat,
Fort St.George, Chennai-600 009.
2.The Director,
The Directorate of Vigilance
and Anti-Corruption,
Alandur, Chennai-600 016.
3.The Chairman,
TANGEDCO,
6th Floor, TANTRANSCO Building,
144, Anna Salai, Chennai-600 002.
4.The Tender Inviting Authority,
Tamil Nadu Generation and
Distribution Corporation Limited
(TANGEDCO),
No.144, Anna Salai,
Chennai-600 002.
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5.The Tender Scrutiny Committee,
Tamil Nadu Generation and
Distribution Corporation Limited
(TANGEDCO),
No.144, Anna Salai,
Chennai-600 002.
6.V.Senthil Balaji
S/o.Velusamy,
No.27, Mullai Illam,
Dr.DGS Dhinakaran Salai,
Chennai-600 028.
Respondents
PRAYER : Petition filed under Article 226 of the Constitution of India
seeking issuance of a writ of mandamus directing the respondents 1
and 2 to take appropriate action against the respondents 3 to 6 by
conducting fair and thorough enquiry by constituting a Special
Investigation Team based on the petitioner’s representation dated
12.08.2025.
For Petitioner: Mr A.G.Vedavikas
for Mr.J.Senthil Kumaraiah
For Respondents: Mr.P.Kumaresan
Addl. Advocate General
assisted by
Mrs.E.Ranganayaki
Addl. Government Pleader
for R1
Mr.N.R.Elango
Senior Counsel
for Mr.E.Raj Thilak
and Mr.K.M.D.Muhilan
Additional Public Prosecutors
for R2
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Mr.P.S.Raman
Advocate General
assisted by
Mr.D.R.Arun Kumar
Standing Counsel
for R3 to R5
Mr.V.Karthic
Senior Counsel
for Mr.Senthil.S.
for R6
COMMON ORDER
THE CHIEF JUSTICE
W.P.No.8166 of 2024 has been filed by the petitioner/Arappor
Iyakkam seeking issuance of a writ of mandamus directing the first
respondent to register an FIR on the basis of the petitioner's
complaint dated 6.7.2023 and to constitute a Special Investigation
Team by this Court and, consequently, to direct the Special
Investigation Team to conduct a time-bound, independent, High
Court monitored fair investigation under the Prevention of
Corruption Act, 1988, Indian Penal Code and other connected Acts.
2. W.P.(Crl.) No.396 of 2025 has been filed by the petitioner,
who is a Deputy Secretary of AIADMK Advocate Wing, seeking
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issuance of a writ of mandamus directing the first respondent to
register an FIR on the representation dated 28.5.2025 and to
constitute a Special Investigation Team to conduct a time-bound
investigation.
3. W.P.(MD) No.26676 of 2025 has been filed by the
petitioner, who is stated to be a member of AIADMK party, seeking
issuance of a writ of mandamus directing respondents 1 and 2 to
take appropriate action against respondents 3 to 6 by conducting
fair and thorough enquiry by constituting a Special Investigation
Team based on the petitioner’s representation dated 12.8.2025.
4. Since the prayer made in these writ petitions and the issues
involved are one and the same, these writ petitions were heard
analogously and are disposed of by this common order.
5. The core of this controversy centers on the procurement
process for electrical Distribution Transformers of varying capacities.
The petitioners contend that these contracts were awarded at
exorbitant rates, significantly surpassing prevailing market
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valuations, resulting in a substantial and unjustifiable loss to the
public exchequer. Despite complaints detailing specific allegations of
malfeasance against the parties involved, the relevant authorities
have failed to register the FIR and conducted a detailed enquiry in
the garb of preliminary enquiry against a single person, ignoring
even a preliminary enquiry against many other persons named in
the complaints, with inordinate and unexplained delay of over three
years. Therefore, left with no option, the present petitions are filed.
RELEVANT FACTS:
W.P.No.8166 of 2024:
6.1. The case of the petitioner is that on 6.7.2023, the
petitioner submitted a complaint to the first respondent/Directorate
of Vigilance and Anti-Corruption regarding a massive scam, which
was estimated to the tune of Rs.397 Crores, in procurement of
Distribution Transformers by the TANGEDCO. The public servants
and private parties had colluded and manipulated the entire tender
process by procuring Distribution Transformers at exorbitant rates,
much higher than the market price resulting in huge loss to the
exchequer thereby unjustly enriching the business groups.
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6.2. The petitioner analysed 10 tenders invited by the
TANGEDCO for procurement of a total of 45,800 Distribution
Transformers of varying specifications during the period 2021 to
2023 and found that in 7 of these 10 tenders, while as many as
more than 20 bidders were shown to have participated, the tender
process was vitiated by an obvious and orchestrated cartelization
among the bidders and it is seen that every single bidder submitted
a quote that was identical to the last decimal point.
6.3. It is averred that the Tender Scrutinizing Committee
actively aided the collusive bidding and awarded tenders to the
bidders by splitting the tender equally amongst them at rates
exorbitantly higher than the prevailing market rates, which resulted
in unjust enrichment totalling about Rs.397 Crores to private parties
at the expense of public exchequer.
6.4. It is further stated that though the first respondent
through its letter dated 22.8.2023 had informed the petitioner that
necessary action as per law will be taken on the complaint, yet the
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first respondent has not registered an FIR as mandated by law and
the first respondent acted in violation of law laid down by the
Supreme Court in the case of Lalita Kumari v. Government of Uttar
Pradesh and others1. Hence, the petition.
W.P.(Crl.) No.396 of 2025:
7.1. The case of the petitioner is that the petitioner has filed a
complaint before the Director, Vigilance and Anti Corruption on
28.05.2025 raising an alarming issue which concerns arbitrary
allotment of tenders and consequential financial crimes committed
by various public officials. Despite pointing out such illegalities, the
respondents have chosen to brush it aside as immaterial and not
even an FIR has been registered against the actual perpetrators.
7.2. It is asserted that the non-registration of FIR shows the
active involvement of political powers. The complaint points out the
active involvement of members of the ruling party who were
involved in committing irregularities/corruption while allotting
tenders for laying of transformers.
1 (2014) 2 SCC 1
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7.3. It is averred that the entire process was in violation of
Tamil Nadu Transparency in Tenders Act, 1998 in collusion with the
bidders and the process reeks of cartelization. Certain persons,
including the then Minister for Tamil Nadu Electricity, Prohibition and
Excise Department during the period 2021 to 2023, had accorded
sanction for floating tenders for distribution of transformers with
certain specifications across Tamil Nadu. Despite the presence of
such discrepancies, the Tender Scrutinizing Committee failed to
exercise due diligence and did not reject the tenders as mandated,
but instead proceeded to negotiate with the bidders and awarded
the tenders by arbitrarily splitting the orders equally among them.
This irregular practice was consistently followed in all tenders
conducted between 2021 and 2023. In seven of these tenders,
contracts worth Rs.1,068 crores were awarded, resulting in a loss to
the public exchequer and corresponding wrongful gain and unjust
enrichment to the contractors amounting to approximately Rs.397
crores.
7.4. It is, therefore, pleaded that a Special Investigation Team
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is to be constituted as the offences have been committed by top
most officials and an elected representative of the State of Tamil
Nadu. Hence, the petition.
W.P.(MD) No.26676 of 2025:
8.1. The case of the petitioner is that award of tenders for
supply of Distribution Transformers of different specifications
starting from 25KVA up to 500KVA during the years 2021, 2022 and
2023 in TANGEDCO lead to unjust enrichment and loss to the
exchequer of about Rs.1182 Crores.
8.2. It is alleged that all the bidders have conspired into
quoting pre-decided quotes for the tender and the bidders and
public servants appear to have conspired to prefix the rate and the
same rate is quoted by all the bidders participating. In support of
the aforesaid averments, reference was made to various tenders
floated, as follows:
(i) In respect of tender in M-14/2022-23 all the 30
bidders in the financial bid have quoted the exact the
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same rate of Rs.7,07,823/- for each 200 KVA
transformer;
(ii) In the bid which was opened in November, 2021,
each of 26 bidders in the financial bid quoted the
exact same rate of Rs.13,72,930/-. Despite Tender
Scrutinising Committee rejecting the tender, they
negotiated with the bidders and awarded the tender
by splitting the orders equally to a total of 16 bidders
who accepted for the negotiated rate of
Rs.12,49,800/- per distribution transformer, which is
58% more than the tender value;
(iii) In yet another tender, viz., M-43/2020-21, there
are clear evidences of cartelization. Out of a total of
35 bidders, 34 bidders quoted the same rate of
Rs.5,62,204.56 per transformer. It is alleged that it
is impossible for 34 bidders to quote the same rate
including the decimal place of 56 paise. However,
the collusive bidding was defeated with 1 bidder
quoting Rs.4,62,914/- per transformer and becoming
lowest bidder. Therefore, the entire contract, the loss
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to the exchequer would have been Rs.25 Crores;
(iv) In another tender, M-08/2021-22, a total of 34
bidders participated. The price bids of 29 bidders
were opened on 15.12.2021. Price bids of another 5
bidders were opened separately on 3.1.2022. All the
34 bidders quoted the same rate of Rs.7,51,660/-
per distribution transformer. The rate was later
negotiated by the Tender Scrutinizing Committee to
Rs.7,29,600/- which is still about Rs.2,66,686/-
higher than the rate of the previous tender, which is
33% more.
It is further asserted that out of the awarded value of Rs.1068
Crores in 7 tenders alone, the loss to the exchequer and wrongful
gain/unjust enrichment of contractor’s total amount would be more
than Rs.350 Crores.
8.3. Pointing out the said irregularities and illegalities, on
12.8.2025, the petitioner sent a detailed representation to the
respondent authorities to take action against all the public servants
and contractors involved. Despite receipt of the same, the
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respondents have not taken any action. Hence, the writ petition.
REBUTTAL BY THE RESPONDENTS:
Stand of V.Kasi:
9.1. Refuting the writ averments, the third respondent in W.P.
8166 of 2024 (V.Kasi) averred that his role does not specifically
relate to the alleged subject-matter. The petitioner, under the guise
of raising a complaint against award of tender s, is trying to drag in
service matters by projecting incorrect facts. He denied to be the
major facilitator of corruption by acting as a close link between the
Minister and the tender scrutinizing committee and pleaded that the
petitioner is making such wild allegations with oblique motives,
without any substance or truth in those allegations.
9.2. It is stated that there is no such possibility of fixing any
tender. The Financial Controller has no role to play in
finalization of the tender or the award of tender. The petitioner has
jumped to the conclusion that there is collusion, opposed to
competition, resulting in corruption. In the tenders floated by
Electricity Board, the specifications are there for everyone to see
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and calculate the price. More importantly, the tender provides
Guaranteed Technical Particulars (GTP). All the parameters have
been given by the Board like copper core, oil, thickness of coil, etc.
Everything is fixed. The costing can be worked out only for that
GTP, basing on lEEMA price variation. Without reference to any of
the above, a bald statement has been made by making reference to
the rates of transformers from few other tenders.
9.3. It is also stated that the third respondent’s role as a
member of tender scrutinizing committee is very limited. There is a
Tender Accepting Committee which is a separate committee in
which the third respondent is not a member. There is vested
interest acting against the third respondent. It is stated that what
was purely internal and on the file is suddenly within the knowledge
of the petitioner and, therefore, it is obvious that some vested
interest in the department furnished wrong particulars to the
petitioner and the petitioner is also using those incorrect facts to
target the third respondent. Thus, the petitioner appears to be hand
in glove with the vested interest in the department. Hence, the
present writ petition is nothing but a private interest litigation, at
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the behest of certain vested interests in the department and sans
merit. He, therefore, prayed for dismissal of the writ petition.
Stand of Tamil Nadu Power Distribution Corporation Limited:
10.1. In W.P.(Crl.) No.396 of 2025, the fourth and fifth
respondents, Tamil Nadu Power Distribution Corporation Limited
[TNPDCL], a successor entity of the TANGEDCO, filed counter-
affidavit, inter alia, stating that the petitioner did not demonstrate
violation of the fundamental rights to maintain this writ petition
without any personal injury. The claim that there was a scam in the
procurement of Distribution Transformers and a consequential loss
to the exchequer is false, baseless, and devoid of any truth. These
allegations are not only based on a flawed and unsubstantiated
comparison of dissimilar products and a complete misunderstanding
of the technical specifications and procurement procedures, but also
with an oblique motive to achieve its ill-objective by defaming and
using the public utility as a tool. The petitioner has deliberately
sensationalized the issue and cast a shadow on the transparent
functioning of a public utility.
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10.2. It is stated that the comparison made by the petitioner
with transformers from other utilities is fundamentally flawed and
misleading. The TNPDCL’s technical specifications are unique,
customized and designed from time to time by the Technical
Committee to ensure a longer operational life, higher efficiency and
reduced failure rates. The petitioner has failed to acknowledge that
TNPDCL exclusively procures copper winding transformers, while
other States often utilize lower-cost aluminum winding
transformers. The cost of copper is significantly higher and subject
to market fluctuations. The petitioner, by making a casual
comparison between high grade copper-based transformers and
low-cost aluminum transformers by applying an unknown formula of
25% to the value of aluminum transformers to estimate the value of
copper transformers has conspicuously, and perhaps deliberately,
overlooked or omitted several crucial factors. These include the
higher quantity and weight of copper used, the extensive 60-month
warranty period required by TANGEDCO and the additional costs
associated with transportation across the State.
10.3. It is further pleaded that the petitioner’s baseless
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comparison can never be relied upon with the actual transformers
procured by respondents 4 and 5. In fact, the usage of copper core
transformers with a specified copper winding, the specified quantity
of oil within the distribution transformers to withstand the sudden
raise in demands due to local climatic conditions, etc. not only
resulted in reduction of failure rate to 2.20% as against the National
average of 5.81%, but also the cost and manpower involved in
attending to such failure that may have occurred resulting in
savings running into hundreds of crores year on year.
10.4. It is stated that TNPDCL procures Distribution
Transformers of various capacities through fully online, two-part
open tendering in strict conformity with the Tamil Nadu
Transparency in Tenders Act, 1998 and the Tamil Nadu Transparency
in Tenders Rules, 2000, ensuring transparency and complete digital
audit trails. The Tender inviting Authority calls for the tender, Tender
Scrutiny Committee assess techno-commercial eligibility and
approvals are accorded by the Board Level Tender Committee
(BLTC) comprising top officers of the TNPDCL and then final decision
is taken by the Board of Directors of the TANGEDCO (now TNPDCL)
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also comprising Government Nominees, such as Head of the
Departments in the Tamil Nadu Secretariat, from Energy, Industries
and Finance Departments, respectively, and thereafter the tender is
finalized and approved.
10.5. It is stated that no individual officer can finalize the
rates or awards and where identical prices are quoted, allocation
will be following the provisions in Section 10 (5) of the Tamil Nadu
Transparency in Tenders Act, 1998 and Rule 31 of the Tamil Nadu
Transparency in Tenders Rules, 2000 by splitting quantities among
qualified bidders, subject to capacity and performance, a long-
standing mechanism in vogue to ensure timely supplies and service
obligations. This kind of allocation eases the procurement of
transformer as per the schedule rather than depending on a single
bidder for a huge quantity. In fact, seldom a single
manufacturer/bidder will be in a position to supply such a huge
quantity of Distribution Transformers and, often, in the absence of
multiple bidders, the requirements of Distribution Transformers
from time to time cannot be met.
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10.6. It is stated that all the participants in the subject tender
are registered manufacturers of Distribution Transformers, most of
them are small and medium scale industries having limited
individual manufacturing capacity and they are neither contractors
nor middlemen nor authorised dealers. In tenders of this nature,
when several eligible manufacturers quote similar/identical rates
and agree to match the price of the lowest bidder to the extent of
number of Distribution Transformers they could supply/quote in
their bid out of the total tendered quantity, the supply quantity is
shared among them in accordance with the tender conditions, the
applicable statutory framework and the practice vogue, keeping in
mind the TNPDCL’s requirement to meet the requirement of
end/intending consumers across Tamil Nadu. Even the price of the
lowest bidder is not accepted mechanically, but is subjected to
rigorous negotiations with reference to the prevailing market rates,
input costs and commercial conditions.
10.7. It is stated that since Distribution Transformers are
essential components for providing electricity supply to new
consumers, not only for maintaining uninterrupted power supply,
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but also for quality supply of power at appropriate voltage level,
etc., sharing the supply among multiple qualified manufacturers,
more particularly when there was no one to supply the entire
quantity requisitioned, reduces the procurement risk of the
answering respondents and ensures timely delivery, instead of
exposing the entire supply requirement to the uncertainty of a
single. In every such high value tenders, including the price
discovery process, negotiations and finalization of rates, will be
placed before the competent authorities including the Board of
Directors of TANGEDCO/TNPDCL, for scrutiny and approval, and,
therefore, the process is not based on any unilateral or independent
decision of any private respondent or individual official.
10.8. It is stated that the comparison sought to be made with
the rates reflected in the GeM portal is not only wholly misconceived
and misleading but also illogical, since the very same supplier is not
shown to have offered identical transformers on the same or similar
technical specifications, warranty conditions, testing standards,
delivery obligations at various places in a State and destination-
based commercial terms. With the aforesaid illogical and ill-adviced
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comparison of a Distribution Transformer with different and distinct
specification not suiting the distribution system in the State, the
allegations of arbitrary allotment, collusion/cartelization, and a
supposed “loss of Rs.397 crore” are purely speculative and
unsupported by admissible materials.
10.9. It is further stated that identical prices do not ipso facto
establish cartelization; historically, identical pricing has occurred in
Distribution Transformers procurement due to standardized
specifications and similar input costs among MSME manufacturers
within Tamil Nadu. The records demonstrate strict adherence to the
Tamil Nadu Transparency in Tenders Act, 1998 and the Rules framed
thereunder, multi-round negotiations, and approvals by BLTC,
followed by the Board of Directors. The tender procurement
documents maintained by the erstwhile TNEB since the year 1987
till today show that historically manufacturers/suppliers of the
Distribution Transformers have been quoting more or less identical
prices and the tendering authority has negotiated with them to
bring down the price as low as possible and finally fixed most/all of
them as L1 and supply materials are distributed among all the
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eligible tenderers, keeping in mind the continuous Distribution
Transformer requirement to cater to the need of consumers.
10.10. It is stated that Section 29A(1) of the Tamil Nadu
Transparency in Tenders Act, 1998, empowers rejection where bids
are abnormally low/high. In the instant case, price reasonableness
was established by multi benchmark analysis and negotiations and
Board approvals were obtained. As an abundant caution, in 2023,
TANGEDCO halted certain supplies half-way by short-closing the
awards and floated fresh tenders (100 numbers each across six
Distribution Transformers categories), and suffered higher rate
inasmuch as in the fresh tender the TANGEDCO discovered rates
8.61% to 13.77% higher than updated PO rates as on 01.09.2023,
thereby validating the earlier prices and discrediting the petitioner’s
“loss” claims.
10.11. It is further stated that TANGEDCO is not succumbing
to any coercion or blackmail from the suppliers who are all heavily
dependent on TANGEDCO to sustain their business. Since the
allegations are bald and false, the writ petition is not maintainable
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and the same is liable to be dismissed.
10.12. It is further asserted that the files relating to Tender
Specification No.M08/2021-22 reveals that a catalog of
M/s.Servokon was also available and its transformer was an “off-
load” transformer and they quoted its MRP/Unit as Rs.8,51,193/-
with an offer price of Rs.7,66,070/-. Since the price of M/s.NJA
Industries Private Limited was mentioned as Rs.6,45,000/- but the
price of M/s.Servokon was much higher than the price of M/s.NJA
Industries Private Limited, the price of M/s.Servokon was not taken
up for comparison and the lesser rate of M/s.NJA Industries Private
Limited which quoted a lower rate was alone recorded and
compared in the official note in order to arrive at a rate after multi-
time/multi level negotiations to get a reduced rate. The petitioner's
attempt to treat the said quoted/reference price as though it related
to an “on-load” transformer is wholly misconceived and contrary to
the very clarification issued by the manufacturer itself. Only after
opening of the financial bids on 15.12.2021 and on 3.1.2022, the
award process proceeded in accordance with law. Therefore,
opening of the financial bids on two different days has not vitiated
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the award process in any manner.
Stand of V.Senthil Balaji:
11.1. The fifth respondent in W.P.No.8166 of 2024, who is also
respondent No.6 in W.P.(Crl.) No.396 of 2025 and W.P.(MD)
No.26675 of 2025, confuted the allegations levelled in the writ
petitions by stating that the petitions do not disclose any direct
overt act, decision, instruction, communication or document linking
him to any stage of the tender process. The allegations against this
respondent are, therefore, not founded on facts, but on
speculations and political rhetoric.
11.2. It is stated that under the Tamil Nadu Transparency in
Tenders Act, 1998 and the Rules framed thereunder, the tender
process is structured and institutional. The Tender Inviting Authority
issues the tender notification. The Tender Scrutiny Committee
examines eligibility and compliance. The competent Tender
Accepting Authority and the Board Level authorities consider the
matter in accordance with the statutory framework. The Board of
the Corporation, consisting of competent officials and Government
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nominees, takes decisions based on the materials placed before it.
The statutory scheme leaves no scope for personal or extraneous
interference in the technical or financial evaluation of bids. In such
circumstances, the attempt to attribute personal involvement
levelled against him, merely because he held ministerial office at
the relevant point of time, is wholly untenable.
11.3. It is averred that he had no statutory, administrative or
adjudicatory role whatsoever in the inviting, processing, scrutiny,
evaluation, comparison, negotiation or acceptance of the subject
tenders. No file, noting, order, direction, instruction, minutes,
communication, message or other contemporaneous material has
been produced by any of the petitioners to even prima facie
demonstrate that he interfered with or influenced the tender
process.
11.4. It is further stated that the petitioners appear to
proceed on the erroneous assumption that because he was the
Minister dealing with the electricity portfolio, every administrative
act of the Corporation is to be presumed to have been done at his
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instance. Such an assumption is legally impermissible. A public
office cannot be converted into a ground for automatic criminal
insinuation. A serious allegation of corruption or conspiracy must
rest on specific pleading and cogent prima facie material. The
petitioners repeatedly insist only for the registration of FIR for no
reasons for the reasons best known to them.
11.5. It is stated that in W.P.No.8166 of 2024, particularly
those attempting to draw an inference of his involvement through
allegations against officials such as V.Kasi, are entirely speculative.
Even according to the petitioner's own pleading, the allegation is
sought to be built through assumptions as to who visited whom,
who was allegedly seen where, and what the petitioner believes
must have happened. Such inferential pleading, unsupported by
records, cannot constitute legal evidence. The allegation that one
official was allegedly operating from this respondent’s residence or
unofficially influencing the tender process at his instance is
emphatically denied. There is not a single acceptable material
placed before this Court to substantiate such an allegation. The
allegation is therefore nothing more than a politically flavoured
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narrative intended to create sensation and prejudice rather than to
present a justiciable case.
11.6. It is further stated that the petitioners have also failed
to appreciate that financial concurrence, technical scrutiny, price
evaluation, qualification assessment and Board approval are
matters undertaken by the designated functionaries and
committees under the governing framework. The petitioner's
allegation, by itself, does not furnish any basis to implicate this
respondent personally, unless there is clear material showing his
direct intervention.
11.7. It is stated that much emphasis has been laid by the
petitioners on alleged identical pricing, comparison with other rates,
alleged cartelization, and supposed loss to the public exchequer.
Even those allegations, assuming they are to be examined at all,
pertain to the commercial and technical domain of the Corporation
and its tender process. The petitioners are attempting to leap from
a disputed commercial inference to a personal accusation against
this respondent, without any connecting evidence. Such a leap is
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impermissible in law and demonstrates the mala fide design
underlying the petitions. The petitioners have not produced any
document to show that he has called for the tender, altered
specifications, dictated bid conditions, influenced the scrutiny
process, participated in price negotiations, directed quantity
allocation, or approved the award in favour of bidders. In the
absence of such foundational facts, the allegations of collusion,
favouritism or criminal misconduct against this respondent are
wholly baseless.
11.8. It is stated that the petitioner in W.P. No.8166 of 2024
has also referred to other proceedings, including matters under the
Prevention of Money Laundering Act, bail proceedings and other
unrelated controversies which were politically motivated, in an
obvious attempt to create prejudice against him before this Court.
The pendency of unrelated proceedings can never be treated as
proof of guilt, nor can it be used to lower the threshold of pleading
required in the present case. Such references are made solely to
poison the record and deserve to be eschewed altogether.
References made by the petitioners to his continuance in public
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office, his political standing, or alleged perceptions in the public
domain are wholly irrelevant for adjudicating the maintainability or
merits of the present writ petitions. Constitutional courts are
concerned with legally relevant facts and not with speculative
narratives or media style insinuations.
11.9. It is stated that the petitioner in W.P. (Crl.) No.396 of
2025, who has described himself as an office-bearer in the AIADMK
Advocate Wing, and the petitioner in W.P. (MD) No.26676 of 2025,
who has disclosed his political affiliation, have clearly demonstrated
the political backdrop in which these litigations have been launched.
The present proceedings are not bona fide public interest litigations,
but are politically motivated litigations intended to malign the
respondent and secure indirectly, through court process, what
cannot be achieved through lawful evidence. Even in the writ
petitions styled as public interest, the pleadings against him are
notably vague. Expressions such as "probable involvement,"
"appears to have," "may have facilitated," or "warrants
investigation" cannot substitute for pleadings of fact much less
prima facie case. Such phrases reveal that the petitioners
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themselves do not possess any definite material against this
respondent.
11.10. It is stated that a writ petition cannot be maintained
merely to explore whether something incriminating may perhaps be
found in future. In fact, the filing of one case before the Single
Bench seeking a direction to register an FIR, and during the
pendency of the said litigation, the filing of yet another case before
the Division Bench at Madurai by another person belonging to the
same legal wing, seeking the very same relief, would clearly
demonstrate the conduct and motive of the petitioners and
constitutes a blatant attempt at forum shopping. The attempt of the
petitioners is plainly to reverse the burden. Without first placing any
prima facie material of the involvement, they seek an investigation
against this respondent in the hope that an enquiry may eventually
discover something. Such an approach is alien to law. A person
cannot be subjected to public law proceedings, much less to
criminal insinuation, merely because the petitioners harbour
suspicion or seek political mileage.
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11.11. It is asserted that the allegations of cartelization, etc.
are wholly unfounded inasmuch as almost same set of suppliers are
participating and their quote of rate more or less a same rate are
not uncommon. In tenders involving standardized products and a
limited vendor base, similarity in pricing by itself cannot lead to any
such inference. In any case, in the absence of any material, the
petitioners' blaming is nothing but an ill-objective to achieve direct
political mileage to the political rival. The petitioners, jointly and
severally, seek to draw far-reaching conclusions from commercial
aspects of the tender, based on illusions. In any event, the said
exercise was part of the institutional tender process of the Board
and this respondent had no personal role at any stage. The entire
case against him is built on a chain of assumptions, namely that
because this respondent was the Minister, he must have influenced
officials; because certain bids were allegedly similar, there must
have been collusion; because one officer is alleged to have been
close to the respondent, he must have orchestrated the entire
process. In this regard, each link in this chain much less the dots is
unsupported/unconnected by evidence. The case is founded entirely
on assumptions and cannot be the basis for any relief against this
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respondent.
11.12. It is stated that the petitioners have not come to this
Court with clean, objective or legally sustainable pleadings insofar
as fifth respondent in W.P.No.8166 of 2024 is concerned. The
allegations are motivated, reckless and defamatory in character.
The attempt is to tarnish his image and drag his name into a
disputed procurement issue without any direct material whatsoever.
The records of the Corporation, the statutory structure governing
the tender process, and the absence of any material connecting the
respondent with the decision-making process would clearly
demonstrate that the allegations made against this respondent are
false and unsustainable. In fact, the respondent, at no point acted
outside the bounds of law, nor has exercised any role contrary to
the statutory procurement mechanism.
11.13. It is stated that while the matter is still pending
adjudication before this Court, the petitioner "Jayaram of Arappor
lyakkam" has, on the eve of the ensuing election, uploaded and
circulated a video in the public domain/social media on 27.03.2026
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setting out only their own version as the crux of the issue, while
wholly ignoring the counter arguments, explanations and
justifications of the respondents. Such a one-sided publication is ex
facie prejudicial and is clearly intended to influence and prejudice
the minds of the electorate by creating an impression as though all
the allegations levelled by the petitioners already stand concluded
and established. The statement made in the said video that "this is
the time to ask" is a clear reference to the upcoming election and
an appeal to the public not to vote for the ruling party, thereby
revealing the ulterior motive behind the publication. Hence, the
said video is liable to be removed forthwith. For all the aforesaid
reasons, it is prayed that the writ petitions insofar as they seek any
relief against the this respondent are liable to be dismissed as
devoid of merits, unsupported by prima facie evidence, vitiated by
political motive with exemplary cost and thus render Justice.
Rejoinder by Arappor Iyakkam:
12.1. Confuting the aforesaid stand taken by the respondents,
the petitioner in W.P.No.8166 of 2024 has filed a common rejoinder
affidavit stating that there has been a two year delay for even
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initiation of enquiry from the date of complaint. While the
petitioner's complaint is dated 6.7.2023, the DVAC sought prior
approval for conducting detailed enquiry after confirmation from
Vigilance Commissioner on 22.1.2024 to the Government.
However, the government, after a huge delay of 20 months,
accorded prior approval for preliminary enquiry against the third
respondent (Kasi) alone on 26.9.2025. The time line for providing
prior approval as per Section 17A of the Prevention of Corruption
Act is only 3 months with provision of extension by a maximum of 1
month. Thus, the huge delay in providing prior approval is
unexplained. Prior approval was granted only because the
petitioner approached this Court. While the petitioner's complaint
has named several public servants and DVAC seems to have sought
prior approval for detailed enquiry against several public servants, it
is not clear why the Government accorded prior approval against
only pubic servant alone, that too, only a preliminary enquiry as
against detailed enquiry.
12.2. It is asserted that under the garb of preliminary enquiry,
the DVAC is conducting a full-fledged investigation without the
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registration of the FIR. The scope of preliminary enquiry is only to
ascertain by conducting a discreet confidential enquiry whether
there is appearance of cognizable offence or not to register a FIR.
When the Vigilance Manual describes the scope of preliminary
enquiry and its completion in 2 months, more than 5 months have
passed since the registration of preliminary enquiry on 13.10.2025.
The actions of the DVAC are not fair and under the guise of
preliminary enquiry what the investigating agency has done is to
conduct a detailed investigation without registering FIR. The huge
delay in registration of FIR could also result in loss of key evidence
such as call records, etc.
12.3. It is further stated that the fact that Tender Scrutinizing
Committee members and other senior public servants failed to act
shows that they are also liable for their actions for being active
participants in the cartelization process. The response of the
Tender Inviting Authority that while other States procure aluminum
transformers, TNPDCL procures copper wound transformers, which
are significantly higher priced compared to aluminum transformers,
is wrong as the petitioner's complaint is for different transformers
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such as 500 KVA, 250 KVA, 200 KVA, 100 KVA and 63 KVA.
Amongst these, for 500 KVA, 250 KVA, 200 KKVA and 100 KVA
transformers, comparison has been directly made against copper
wound transformers procured by other State Electricity
Departments. In fact, the petitioner has made market comparisons
by taking into account a variety of rates such as (a) GeM rate, (b)
previous tender rate of TNPDCL; (c) cost data of TNEB Engineers;
(d) other State rates. Even TNPCD:'s own procurement with same
specifications previously shows significantly lower price. Hence, the
counter-affidavit of respondents 4 and 5 no way dispels the factual
material showing cartelization, price fixing, bid collusiion and
conspiracy to defraud the exchequer by making redundant the TN
Transparency in Tenders Act, 1998, Competition Act, 2002 and
other laws.
Status report of DVAC:
13.1. During the course of the hearing, on 6.4.2026, the
DVAC filed a common status report, inter alia, stating the petition of
the petitioner (Arappor Iyakkam) dated 6.7.2023 was received by
the DVAC on 10.7.2023. A factual verification of the said petition
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was carried out and thereafter the same was sent to the Vigilance
Commissioner, through a report on 22.8.2023. The Vigilance
Commissioner, vide letter dated 10.11.2023, directed the DVAC to
conduct a detailed enquiry after getting prior approval from the
competent authority. The DVAC addressed the Principal Secretary
to Government, Energy Department seeking prior approval for
registration of detailed enquiry, vide letter dated 22.1.2024.
13.2. It is averred that discreet verification on the petition
dated 28.5.2025 sent by the petitioner in W.P.(Crl.) No.396 of 2025
and petition dated 14.8.2025 sent by the petitioner in W.P.(MD)
No.26676 of 2025 was conducted by the officer of DVAC and found
that the allegations mentioned in the petitions were similar to those
raised in the petition sent by petitioner in W.P.No.8166 of 2024 and
those petitions were clubbed together with the aforesaid petitions.
13.3. It is further stated that prior approval was accorded vide
Government letter dated 26.9.2025. DVAC ordered to register a
preliminary enquiry through Memorandum dated 10.10.2025.
Accordingly, preliminary enquiry was registered on 13.10.2025
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against Kasi, Financial Controller (Purchase-I), TANGEDCO, Chennai
and taken up for enquiry.
13.4. It is also stated that, during the course of enquiry,
relevant documents were collected, the documents were scrutinized
and connected witnesses were enquired. The preliminary enquiry
has revealed that there is no prima facie evidence to ascertain that
between 2021 and 2023, TANGEDCO has awarded tender to the
various firms for higher value in the procurement of various
capacity of Distribution Transformers of a range of specifications
starting from 25 KVA to 500 KVA, thereby causing loss to the
exchequer and other allegations. Accordingly, the preliminary
enquiry was concluded and further action dropped, since the
allegations mentioned in the above three petitions were not
substantiated and the final report was sent to the Vigilance
Commissioner by the DVAC on 04.04.2026. The closure report will
be served on the first informant, viz. Arappor Iyakkam, in
compliance with the judgment of Lalita Kumari v. Government of
Uttar Pradesh and others (supra).
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SUBMISSIONS MADE BY LEARNED COUNSEL FOR THE
PETITIONERS:
14.1. Dr.V.Suresh, learned counsel for the petitioner in
W.P.No.8166 of 2024, submitted that in the methodology
undertaken by the petitioner, they found that in 7 of the 10 tenders
there was clear evidence of unjust enrichment to the contractors
and resultant loss to the exchequer amount to Rs.397 crores. It is
further submitted that the procurement process in question is not
merely irregular, but runs athwart the spirit and letter of the Tamil
Nadu Transparency in Tenders Act, 1998, which was enacted to
ensure that the public exchequer is protected through a
transparent, arm’s-length process. However, the evidence of
collusion and cartelization, exemplified by identical bids,
demonstrates that the transparency was purely superficial.
Underneath the procedural formalities there is a secretive
agreement between bidders and public servants, which suppressed
the discovery of the true market price.
14.2. Referring to Sections 12 and 29A of the Tamil Nadu
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Transparency in Tenders Act, 1998, it is submitted that considering
the fact that the tender value was abnormally high compared to the
market rate, the Tender Scrutinizing Committee ought to have
rejected the tender, but instead the Committee negotiated with the
bidders and awarded the tender by splitting the orders equally to a
total of 16 bidders who accepted for the negotiated rate. He drew
our attention to the wrong comparison of market rates by the
Tender Scrutinizing Committee.
14.3. Pointing out the overt act attributable to V.Kasi, who
was the Financial Controller (Purchase), learned counsel for the
petitioner submitted that he is part of the Tender Scrutinizing
Committee and should have rejected/cancelled the tenders after
seeing the collusive bidding of all bidders quoting the same amount.
There is zero competition as there are no competitive rates in the
tender. However, he not only approved them, but also approved
them at rates much higher than the prevailing market rate and
tender value creating a huge loss to the exchequer. It is submitted
that V.Kasi appears to have great influence with Minister, Senthil
Balaji, using which tenders seem to be fixed illegally.
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14.4. It is further submitted that the said V.Kasi was ordered
to compulsorily retire from service on 19.03.2021 by the then
Chairman and Managing Director, but the fourth respondent in this
petition, Rajesh Lakhoni, appears to have violated the service
regulation of the Board in inducting him back. It is also submitted
that said Rajesh Lakhoni acted with ulterior motive to get V.Kasi
back in service for reasons known best to him. When the Tender
Scrutinizing committee approved the fraudulent and corrupt tenders
wherein the bidders have quoted the same rate, Rajesh Lakhoni, as
Chairman and Managing Director and member of the Board,
approved the tenders without questioning the collusive bidding.
Rajesh Lakhoni was the Chief Administrative person of TANGEDCO
and should have cancelled and taken action against the corrupt and
collusive tenders, but instead he seems to have played a very active
role in aiding and abetting the corruption by getting approval for the
corrupt tenders in the Board of TANGEDCO.
14.5. It is also submitted that Section 17A of the Prevention
of Corruption Act postulates a timeline of three months, with
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extension of one month, but in the case on hand though the
complaint was given in 2023, approval was granted for preliminary
enquiry selectively against Kasi on 26.9.2025 and all of a sudden,
on 4.4.2026, the enquiry was completed holding that there is
insufficient oral and documentary evidence to substantiate the
allegations and, hence, further action is dropped.
14.6. In support of the aforesaid submissions, Shri Suresh
placed reliance on various decisions of the Supreme Court and
various High Courts:
(i) Sanjay Dinanath Tiwari v. Director General of
Police (Anti Corruption) and others2;
(ii) Kripa Shankarram Niranjan Singh v. Sanjay
Dinanath Tiwari and others3;
(iii) Kripa Shankarram Niranjan Singh v. Sanjay
Dinanath Tiwari and others4;
15.1. Shri V.Raghavachari, learned Senior Counsel appearing
for the petitioner in W.P. (Crl) No.396 of 2025, submitted that once
or twice there can be repetition in respect of one or two bidders,
2 2012 SCC OnLine Bom 259
3 SLP (C) No.7725 of 2012, dated 13.3.2012
4 Civil Appeal No.7788 of 2013, dated 2.9.2013
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but in at least nine tenders all the bidders quoted the same rate. It
is added that quoting of identical rates for Distribution Transformers
across various capacities, without a single variation in decimal
points, transcends the realm of coincidence. In a sector
characterized by diverse manufacturing overheads, logistics, and
raw material costs, such mathematical uniformity reeks of collusion.
It serves as an undeniable "smoking gun", proving the existence of
a clandestine pre-arrangement designed to subvert the competitive
bidding process.
15.2. It is further submitted that the said Kasi was suspended
and directed to be compulsorily retired. However, he was re-
inducted into service in violation of the Rules.
15.3. It is also submitted that when the allegation is levelled
against the Minister, the person who is to conduct investigation
belongs to a lower rank and no independent decision can be taken
by such person. The complaint is pending for almost two years,
but, all of a sudden, in the first week of April, 2026, the petitioner
was called to attend the enquiry and thereafter the enquiry was
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foreclosed with much haste, scuttling the procedure. For three long
years, the respondent authorities did not take any action, but
suddenly, when the matter was being finally heard by this court, the
enquiry was closed. This, according to him is a serious matter
which requires investigation by an unbiased agency.
15.4. Referring to the decision of the Supreme Court in Save
Mon Region Federation and another v. State of Uttar Pradesh 5, he
submitted that when repeatedly the very same persons are
successfully awarded tenders the Supreme Court directed
investigation by Central Bureau of Investigation. There are narrow
set of beneficiaries and there is arbitrariness in public procurement.
He submitted that any person with an unbiased mind would have
directed registration of an FIR, when all the bidders are quoting the
same price and there are various allegations of corruption.
15.5. It is further submitted that in matters involving
allegations of systemic corruption and the embezzlement of public
funds, the investigative machinery must be set in motion at the
52026 INSC 320
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earliest possible opportunity. Delay in such matters is not merely a
procedural lapse, it is a fatal blow to the integrity of the evidence. It
is submitted that the towering delay in addressing the formal
complaints has allowed the suspected parties time to potentially
suppress records and formalize their illicit gains. Given the depth of
the alleged conspiracy between public servants and private bidders,
an internal inquiry would be a futile exercise, as done in this case
and, therefore, it is pleaded that this is the fittest case for reference
to an independent agency like the Central Bureau of Investigation.
16. Shri A.G.Vedavikas, learned counsel appearing for the
petitioner in W.P.(MD) No.26676 of 2025, submitted that he is
adopting the arguments advanced by learned counsel for the
petitioners in the other two writ petitions.
17.1. Learned Advocate General appearing on behalf of the
Tamil Nadu Power Distribution Corporation Limited submitted that
W.P.(Crl.) No.396 of 2025 and W.P.(MD) No.26676 of 2025 are filed
by members of the same political party. They have no locus standi.
Both the members belong to the legal wing of the same political
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party. One filed in Madras and the other in Madurai. These two writ
petitions are politically motivated and publicity interested litigations.
The averments in both the writ petitions are one and the same.
17.2. In respect of the allegations levelled by the petitioner in
W.P.No.8166 of 2024, it is further submitted that procurement of
Distribution Transformers is the life blood of the electricity
distribution system. He submitted that around four lakh
transformers are operating in Tamil Nadu and the annual
requirement of replacement is approximately 20000 transformers.
There are approximately 40 to 50 manufacturers of transformers,
who are all clustered in and around Chennai, barring one or two
manufacturers from the other States. Most the names of the
bidders will be repeating and these names are repeating for the last
20 to 25 years.
17.3. It is also submitted that several bidders join together
and quote the same rate to the last decimal point. No single bidder
can meet the requirement of the Electricity Board. L1 is chosen and
called for negotiation to discuss the best rate and since L1 alone
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cannot supply all the transformers, the other qualified tenderers are
called for and directed to supply certain quantity at the rate fixed
for L1. This, according to learned Advocate General, is permissible
under Section 10(5) of the Tamil Nadu Transparency in Tenders Act,
1998, which allows the authorities to split the quantity where the
price is the same. Reference is also made to Rule 31 of the Tamil
Nadu Transparency in Tenders Rules, 2000 in support of this
submission. The said practice is not unusual, but it is fairly
common. Parallel pricing is very common in cases where the
tendering authority calls all the tenderers and awards part of the
contract to each tenderer. In this regard, reliance is placed on a
decision of the Supreme Court in Rajasthan Cylinders and
Containers Ltd v. Union of India 6. He submitted that for block
supplies, they take the lowest price, negotiate with the lowest
quoting bidder and request all the eligible bidders to quote the
same price.
17.4. It is further submitted that the comparison of the
products pointed out by Dr.Suresh, counsel for the petitioner in
6(2020) 16 SCC 615
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W.P.No.8166 of 2024, with the transformers purchased by the
TANGEDCO is like comparing chalk and cheese.
17.5. Answering the issue raised by the petitioner in
W.P.No.8166 of 2024 that in tender, M-08/2021-22, a total of 34
bidders participated; the price bids of 29 bidders were opened on
15.12.2021, whereas the price bids of another 5 bidders were
opened separately on 3.1.2022 and all the bidders quoted the same
rate of Rs.7,51,660/- per distribution transformer, it is submitted
that all the 34 bidders submitted e-tenders. All of them submitted
their financial bids within the stipulated time. What the law
prohibits is receiving of price bid after the last date. In this case,
no material is produced to substantiate the plea that the price bid
was received after the last date.
17.6. Pointing out to the tender process involved in Tender
No.100/11, wherein, according to the petitioner there is an
estimated loss of Rs.397 crores, learned Advocate General
submitted that the price was approved by the Tender Committee at
Rs.4,13,590/- per transformer. The bidder gives minimum warranty
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of five years. 5% of the entire tender value has to be deposited
with the TANGEDCO as security deposit for nearly 72 months. The
procedure contemplated has been followed strictly and all
safeguards have been taken by the TANGEDCO and there is no
violation as alleged by the petitioner.
17.7. Qua the contention of the petitioner that other States
often utilize lower-cost aluminum winding transformers, learned
Advocate General submitted that in the State of Kerala, where
Aluminium is used in transformer, the total quantity used is 87 Kgs
per transformer, whereas in the State of Tamil Nadu, the total
quantity of Copper used in the transformer is 152 kgs. Copper is
being used based on the recommendation of the experts and the
quality of the transformer required by TANGEDCO cannot be subject
to the discretion of the petitioner.
17.8. It is submitted that the TANGEDCO is under the control
of the Accountant General’s office, which is a constitutional body.
On the basis of the complaints lodged, the office of the Accountant
General sought particulars from the TANGEDCO and found no basis
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in the allegations levelled. In the absence of any empirical data
available for registration of an FIR, the writ petitions sans substance
are to be dismissed.
18.1. Mr.V.Kartic, learned Senior Counsel appearing on behalf
of the fifth respondent in W.P.No.8166 of 2024, submitted that in
the whole process of awarding tender, the government also does
not have any say in the working of the Tender Committee and,
therefore, the fifth respondent has no role to play in the tender
process.
18.2. It is further submitted that the fifth respondent is
available in the Secretariat and residence, which is a camp office,
and officials of the Electricity Board come to him to apprise the
situation. The presence of the officials of the Electricity Board, by
itself, does not mean that there is something more to it than meets
the eye.
19.1. Mr.N.R.Elango, learned Senior Counsel appearing on
behalf of the DVAC, on the basis of a report in a sealed cover which
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was produced during the course of hearing, submitted that each of
the allegation has been culled out and the allegations were split into
seven major heads and each of the major head has been taken into
consideration. A comparison was drawn with the prices of
distribution transformers in Rajasthan and Tamil Nadu and there
was no loss to the government found.
19.2. It is further submitted that DVAC Manual contemplates
that each one of the entries are supervised by the Superintendent
of Police and placed before the Director at every stage. This
enquiry was monitored by the highest level of officers in the rank of
Director General of Police. There is no official loss to the
government and there is no prima facie evidence to substantiate
any of the allegations. To invoke the provisions of the Prevention of
Corruption Act, the complaint has to reveal something which
attracts the offence.
19.3. It is also submitted that the proposition laid down in
Lalita Kumari v. Government of Uttar Pradesh and others (supra) is
no more a good law in view of the change in the law from Code of
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Cirminal Procedure to the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita. He
drew the attention of the court to the Parliamentary Standing
Committee discussions.
19.4. It is further submitted that the Constitutional Court has
no power to order for an investigation or registration of FIR. If the
police do not take any action, the person aggrieved must approach
the Magistrate.
19.5. It is submitted that the decision of the Supreme Court in
Save Mon Region Federation and another v. State of Uttar Pradesh
(supra) relied upon by Mr.V.Raghavachari, learned Senior Counsel,
does not apply to the facts of the present case. It is submitted that
in that case all the bidders are relatives of the Chief Minister; no
tender was called for. In that case, the Supreme Court ordered
enquiry by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India and based
on the report, considering the exceptional circumstances, the
Supreme Court order investigation by CBI. In the case on hand,
there is no material to substantiate any allegation.
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20. We have heard learned counsel for the respective parties
and bestowed our serious consideration to the respective
submissions.
21. These three writ petitions raise identical issues wherein
serious allegations have been made in the matter of procurement of
distribution transformers by submitting collusive bids by quoting the
same price and tenders were awarded to all the said parties for
procurement of approximately 26,300 transformers during the
period between 2021 and 2023 at extortionate rates compared to
the then prevailing market value, thereby resulting in huge financial
loss to the public exchequer. Though complaints were lodged for
taking action against the persons involved in the decision making
process, it did not evoke any response and, therefore, the
petitioners are before us seeking direction to the Director of
Vigilance and Anti-Corruption to register an FIR and to constitute a
Special Investigation Team to conduct a time-bound, independent
and/or High Court monitored fair investigation under the Prevention
of Corruption Act.
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22. All the three petitioners, in one voice, contended that as
per the authoritative pronouncement of the Supreme Court in
various decisions on the issue, it is mandatory on part of the police
officials to register an FIR when the information discloses a
cognizable offence. It is further contended that even if the police
officials were of the opinion that the complaint does not disclose an
offence of cognizable nature, a preliminary verification or inquiry for
limited purpose of ascertaining as to whether a cognizable offence
has been committed can be held, but the same has to be completed
in six weeks. However, in the case at hand, though the earliest
complaint was made on 6.7.2023, the DVAC took almost three
years to conduct the preliminary enquiry and the net result of the
enquiry is that there is no prima facie evidence to substantiate the
allegations. Dissatisfied with the report of the DVAC, the
petitioners pray for constitution of a court-monitored Special
Investigation Team or investigation by the Central Bureau of
Investigation.
23. Qua the law on the issue pertaining to registration of an
FIR when a complaint is made and as to whether preliminary
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enquiry is sine qua non for registration of FIR or not, the Supreme
Court time and again emphasized the procedure to be followed.
24. The Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court in Lalita
Kumari v. Government of Uttar Pradesh and others (supra),
elaborately dealt with (a) the duty of the police officer in registering
offence if cognizable office is disclosed; (b) scope of preliminary
enquiry; and (c) as to what type and in which cases preliminary
enquiry is to be conducted. The relevant observations of the
Supreme Court read thus:
“73. The legislature has consciously used the
expression “information” in Section 154(1) of the
Code as against the expression used in Sections
41(1)(a) and (g) where the expression used for
arresting a person without warrant is “reasonable
complaint” or “credible information”. The expression
under Section 154(1) of the Code is not qualified by
the prefix “reasonable” or “credible”. The non-
qualification of the word “information” in Section
154(1) unlike in Sections 41(1)(a) and (g) of the
Code is for the reason that the police officer should
not refuse to record any information relating to the
commission of a cognizable offence on the ground
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that he is not satisfied with the reasonableness or
credibility of the information. In other words,
reasonableness or credibility of the said
information is not a condition precedent for the
registration of a case.
…
93. The object sought to be achieved by
registering the earliest information as FIR is
inter alia twofold : one, that the criminal
process is set into motion and is well
documented from the very start; and second,
that the earliest information received in
relation to the commission of a cognizable
offence is recorded so that there cannot be any
embellishment, etc. later.
94. Principles of democracy and liberty demand a
regular and efficient check on police powers. One
way of keeping check on authorities with such
powers is by documenting every action of theirs.
Accordingly, under the Code, actions of the police,
etc. are provided to be written and documented. For
example, in case of arrest under Section 41(1)( b) of
the Code, the arrest memo along with the grounds
has to be in writing mandatorily; under Section 55 of
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the Code, if an officer is deputed to make an arrest,
then the superior officer has to write down and
record the offence, etc. for which the person is to be
arrested; under Section 91 of the Code, a written
order has to be passed by the officer concerned to
seek documents; under Section 160 of the Code, a
written notice has to be issued to the witness so that
he can be called for recording of his/her statement,
seizure memo/panchnama has to be drawn for every
article seized, etc.
95. The police is required to maintain several records
including case diary as provided under Section 172 of
the Code, General Diary as provided under Section
44 of the Police Act, etc. which helps in documenting
every information collected, spot visited and all the
actions of the police officers so that their activities
can be documented. Moreover, every information
received relating to commission of a non-cognizable
offence also has to be registered under Section 155
of the Code.
96. The underpinnings of compulsory
registration of FIR is not only to ensure
transparency in the criminal justice-delivery
system but also to ensure “judicial oversight ”.
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Section 157(1) deploys the word “forthwith”. Thus,
any information received under Section 154(1) or
otherwise has to be duly informed in the form of a
report to the Magistrate. Thus, the commission of a
cognizable offence is not only brought to the
knowledge of the investigating agency but also to the
subordinate judiciary.
97. The Code contemplates two kinds of FIRs : the
duly signed FIR under Section 154(1) is by the
informant to the officer concerned at the police
station. The second kind of FIR could be which is
registered by the police itself on any information
received or other than by way of an informant
[Section 157(1)] and even this information has to be
duly recorded and the copy should be sent to the
Magistrate forthwith. The registration of FIR either on
the basis of the information furnished by the
informant under Section 154(1) of the Code or
otherwise under Section 157(1) of the Code is
obligatory. The obligation to register FIR has
inherent advantages:
97.1. (a) It is the first step to “access to justice” for
a victim.
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97.2. (b) It upholds the “rule of law” inasmuch as the
ordinary person brings forth the commission of a
cognizable crime in the knowledge of the State.
97.3. (c) It also facilitates swift investigation and
sometimes even prevention of the crime. In both
cases, it only effectuates the regime of law.
97.4. (d) It leads to less manipulation in criminal
cases and lessens incidents of “antedated” FIR or
deliberately delayed FIR.”
…
119. Therefore, in view of various counterclaims
regarding registration or non-registration, what is
necessary is only that the information given to
the police must disclose the commission of a
cognizable offence . In such a situation,
registration of an FIR is mandatory. However, if
no cognizable offence is made out in the
information given, then the FIR need not be
registered immediately and perhaps the police
can conduct a sort of preliminary verification or
inquiry for the limited purpose of ascertaining
as to whether a cognizable offence has been
committed. But, if the information given clearly
mentions the commission of a cognizable
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offence, there is no other option but to register
an FIR forthwith. Other considerations are not
relevant at the stage of registration of FIR,
such as, whether the information is falsely
given, whether the information is genuine,
whether the information is credible, etc. These
are the issues that have to be verified during
the investigation of the FIR. At the stage of
registration of FIR, what is to be seen is merely
whether the information given ex facie
discloses the commission of a cognizable
offence. If, after investigation, the information
given is found to be false, there is always an
option to prosecute the complainant for filing a
false FIR.
120. In view of the aforesaid discussion, we hold:
120.1. The registration of FIR is mandatory
under Section 154 of the Code, if the
information discloses commission of a
cognizable offence and no preliminary inquiry is
permissible in such a situation.
120.2. If the information received does not disclose a
cognizable offence but indicates the necessity for an
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inquiry, a preliminary inquiry may be conducted
only to ascertain whether cognizable offence is
disclosed or not.
120.3. If the inquiry discloses the commission
of a cognizable offence, the FIR must be
registered. In cases where preliminary inquiry
ends in closing the complaint, a copy of the
entry of such closure must be supplied to the
first informant forthwith and not later than one
week. It must disclose reasons in brief for closing
the complaint and not proceeding further.
120.4. The police officer cannot avoid his duty of
registering offence if cognizable offence is disclosed.
Action must be taken against erring officers who do
not register the FIR if information received by him
discloses a cognizable offence.
120.5. The scope of preliminary inquiry is not to
verify the veracity or otherwise of the
information received but only to ascertain
whether the information reveals any cognizable
offence.
120.6. As to what type and in which cases
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preliminary inquiry is to be conducted will depend on
the facts and circumstances of each case. The
category of cases in which preliminary inquiry may
be made are as under:
(a) Matrimonial disputes/family disputes
(b) Commercial offences
(c) Medical negligence cases
(d) Corruption cases
(e) Cases where there is abnormal delay/laches in
initiating criminal prosecution, for example, over 3
months' delay in reporting the matter without
satisfactorily explaining the reasons for delay.
The aforesaid are only illustrations and not
exhaustive of all conditions which may warrant
preliminary inquiry.
120.7. While ensuring and protecting the rights of
the accused and the complainant, a preliminary
inquiry should be made time-bound and in any
case it should not exceed fifteen days generally
and in exceptional cases, by giving adequate
reasons, six weeks’ time is provided. The fact of
such delay and the causes of it must be
reflected in the General Diary entry. [Modified as
per the decision in Lalita Kumari v. State of U.P.,
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(2023) 9 SCC 695].
120.8. Since the General Diary/Station Diary/Daily
Diary is the record of all information received in a
police station, we direct that all information relating
to cognizable offences, whether resulting in
registration of FIR or leading to an inquiry, must be
mandatorily and meticulously reflected in the said
diary and the decision to conduct a preliminary
inquiry must also be reflected, as mentioned above.”
[emphasis supplied]
25. Thus, Lalita Kumari case (supra) explicitly categorized
corruption as a specific exception to the general rule of immediate
FIR registration. It established that a preliminary enquiry may be
conducted first to determine if a cognizable offence actually exists.
In P.Sirajuddin v. State of Madras7, decided well before Lalita
Kumari case (supra), the Supreme Court emphasized the need for
caution when dealing with public officials. The Supreme Court
observed that before a public servant is publicly accused of serious
dishonesty or professional misconduct and an FIR is registered
against him, a responsible officer should first conduct a suitable
7 AIR 1971 SC 520
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enquiry to protect the individual from baseless reputational
damage.
26. The aforesaid decision in Lalita Kumari case (supra) has
been referred to and relied upon in a later decision in Charansingh
v. State of Maharashtra and others 8. The issue that arose for
consideration was whether conducting an enquiry before filing a
First Information Report (FIR) is lawful and, if so, what are the
limitations. Though it was held that in such cases preliminary
enquiry at pre-registration stage is permissible, and in a given case
it may be desirable also, it being a case of allegation of corruption
against the public servant, it was clearly emphasised as to what
would be scope of such preliminary enquiry. It was held that it is
enough if the Police Officer on the basis of the information given
suspects the commission of a cognizable offence, and not that he
must be convinced or satisfied that a cognizable offence has been
committed. The relevant observations are reproduced hereunder:
“15.2. ... Even at the stage of registering the FIR,
what is required to be considered is whether the
information given discloses the commission of a
8(2021) 5 SCC 469
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cognizable offence and the information so lodged
must provide a basis for the police officer to suspect
the commission of a cognizable offence. At this
stage, it is enough if the police officer on the
basis of the information given suspects the
commission of a cognizable offence, and not
that he must be convinced or satisfied that a
cognizable offence has been committed.”
[emphasis supplied]
27. The principle laid down in the aforesaid decision clarifies
that the scope of a preliminary enquiry is narrow. Its primary
purpose is to ensure that the process does not become a tool for
undue delay once the initial information clearly indicates that a
cognizable offence has been committed. Furthermore, the law does
not require a police officer to reach a state of absolute certainty or
final satisfaction regarding the crime at this early stage. Once a
police officer has a reasonable basis to suspect that a cognizable
offence has been committed, he is legally obligated to register the
FIR.
28. While the Supreme Court in Lalita Kumari (supra) and
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Charansingh (supra) affirmed that preliminary enquiries are legally
permissible in specific circumstances, it simultaneously established
a strict procedural safeguard of expediency. The Court has
repeatedly emphasized that such enquiries must be finalized within
the shortest time frame possible to ensure the legal process is not
bypassed. The Supreme Court’s rulings are clear that the
allowance for a preliminary enquiry is not a "legal shield" or a
loophole that justifies delaying a criminal case. As soon as the
information provided indicates that a cognizable offence has
occurred, the period of enquiry must end and the formal
registration of the case must begin.
29. The necessity to hold preliminary enquiry in all cases of
allegation of corruption is not an absolute and mandatory
requirement as has been held by the Supreme Court in two recent
judicial pronouncements: (i) State of Karnataka v. T.N.Sudhakar
Reddy9; and (ii) State of Karnataka v. Sri Channakeshava.H.D.10.
30. In T.N.Sudhakar Reddy (supra), the following two
92025 INSC 229102025 SCC OnLine SC 753
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questions were framed for consideration by the Supreme Court:
“A. Whether a preliminary inquiry was mandatory
before directing registration of an FIR under the PC
Act in the facts of the case at hand or whether the
source information report could be treated to be a
substitute for the preliminary inquiry?
B. Whether the Order dated 4th November, 2023,
passed by the Superintendent of Police under Section
17 of the PC Act, is sustainable in the eyes of law?”
31. The first issue as to whether a preliminary inquiry was
mandatory before directing registration of an FIR under the PC Act
in the facts of the case at hand or whether the source information
report could be treated to be a substitute for the preliminary inquiry
was considered by the Supreme Court in the light of the earlier
decisions in the case of P.Sirajuddin (supra); Lalita Kumari (supra);
CBI and Another v. Thommandru Hannah Vijaylakshmi and
another11; and State of Telangana v. Managipet Alias Mangipet
Sarveshwar Reddy12.
32. Taking note of the declaration of law in Lalita Kumari case
11(2021) 18 SCC 13512(2019) 19 SCC 87
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(supra) and Managipet Alias Mangipet Sarveshwar Reddy (supra),
the following observations were made by the Supreme Court in
Sudhakar Reddy case (supra):
“21. Following the rationale of Lalita Kumari (supra),
this Court in Managipet (supra) held that while the
decision in Lalita Kumari (supra) noted that a
preliminary inquiry was desirable in cases of alleged
corruption, this does not vest a right in the accused
to demand a preliminary inquiry. Whether the
preliminary inquiry is required to be conducted or not
will depend on the peculiar facts and circumstances
of each case, and it cannot be said to be a
mandatory requirement, in the absence of which, an
FIR cannot be registered against the accused in
corruption-related matters.
22. The relevant paragraphs from Managipet (supra)
are extracted herein below:-
“33. In the present case, the FIR itself shows
that the information collected is in respect of
disproportionate assets of the accused
officer. The purpose of a preliminary inquiry
is to screen wholly frivolous and motivated
complaints, in furtherance of acting fairly and
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objectively. Herein, relevant information was
available with the informant in respect of
prima facie allegations disclosing a
cognizable offence. Therefore, once the
officer recording the FIR is satisfied with such
disclosure, he can proceed against the
accused even without conducting any inquiry
or by any other manner on the basis of the
credible information received by him. It
cannot be said that the FIR is liable to be
quashed for the reason that the preliminary
inquiry was not conducted. The same can
only be done if upon a reading of the entirety
of an FIR, no offence is disclosed. Reference
in this regard, is made to a judgment of this
Court in State of Haryana v. Bhajan Lal,
1992 Supp (1) SCC 335 : 1992 SCC (Cri)
426, wherein, this Court held inter alia that
where the allegations made in the FIR or the
complaint, even if they are taken at their
face value and accepted in their entirety, do
not prima facie constitute any offence or
make out a case against the accused and
also where a criminal proceeding is
manifestly attended with mala fides and/or
where the proceeding is maliciously
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instituted with an ulterior motive for
wreaking vengeance on the accused and with
a view to spite him due to private and
personal grudge.
34. Therefore, we hold that the
preliminary inquiry warranted in Lalita
Kumari is not required to be mandatorily
conducted in all corruption cases . It has
been reiterated by this Court in multiple
instances that the type of preliminary inquiry
to be conducted will depend on the facts and
circumstances of each case. There are no
fixed parameters on which such inquiry can
be said to be conducted. Therefore, any
formal and informal collection of information
disclosing a cognizable offence to the
satisfaction of the person recording the FIR is
sufficient.”
23. A three-judge bench of this Court in
Thommandru Hannah Vijayalakshmi (supra)
extensively discussed the judicial precedents and
legal principles governing the requirement of
conducting a preliminary inquiry before registration
of an FIR. The Court affirmed the view taken by
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the two-judge Bench in Managipet (supra),
holding that a preliminary inquiry may not be
necessary if the officer recording the FIR
possesses relevant information which discloses
the commission of a cognizable offence. The
relevant extracts from Thommandru Hannah
Vijayalakshmi (supra) are reproduced herein below:-
“32. [..]... we hold that since the institution
of a Preliminary inquiry in cases of corruption
is not made mandatory before the
registration of an FIR under the CrPC, PC Act
or even the CBI Manual, for this Court to
issue a direction to that affect will be
tantamount to stepping into the legislative
domain.
39. The precedents of this Court and the
provisions of the CBI Manual make it
abundantly clear that a preliminary
inquiry is not mandatory in all cases
which involve allegations of corruption .
The decision of the Constitution Bench in
Lalita Kumari [Lalita Kumari v. State of U.P.,
(2014) 2 SCC 1 : (2014) 1 SCC (Cri) 524]
holds that if the information received
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discloses the commission of a cognizable
offence at the outset, no preliminary inquiry
would be required. It also clarified that
the scope of a preliminary inquiry is not
to check the veracity of the information
received, but only to scrutinise whether
it discloses the commission of a
cognizable offence . Similarly, Para 9.1 of
the CBI Manual notes that a preliminary
inquiry is required only if the information
(whether verified or unverified) does not
disclose the commission of a cognizable
offence. Even when a preliminary inquiry is
initiated, it has to stop as soon as the officer
ascertains that enough material has been
collected which discloses the commission of a
cognizable offence. A similar conclusion has
been reached by a two-Judge Bench in
Managipet [State of Telangana v. Managipet,
(2019) 19 SCC 87 : (2020) 3 SCC (Cri) 702]
as well. Hence, the proposition that a
preliminary inquiry is mandatory is
plainly contrary to law, for it is not only
contrary to the decision of the
Constitution Bench in Lalita Kumari
[Lalita Kumari v. State of U.P., (2014) 2
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SCC 1 : (2014) 1 SCC (Cri) 524] but
would also tear apart the framework
created by the CBI Manual.”
[emphasis supplied]
33. It was clearly enunciated by the Supreme Court that a
preliminary enquiry is a narrow, specialized tool designed to balance
two competing interests: protecting public servants from meritless
harassment, while preventing the arbitrary suppression of
legitimate corruption charges, and that its purpose is strictly to
verify if a "suspected" offence exists, rather than to conduct a full
investigation. The Supreme Court ruled that an enquiry is not an
absolute requirement in every instance, but its necessity is
determined on a case-to-case basis, depending entirely on whether
the available facts already clearly disclose a cognizable offence.
34. The conclusion arrived at by the Supreme Court in
Sudhakar Reddy case (supra) is reproduced hereunder:
“51. In view of the above discussion, we conclude
that:-
a. The High Court erred in coming to the conclusion
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that the order dated 4th December, 2023, passed by
the Superintendent of Police, was directly passed
under Section 17 of the PC Act, thereby violating the
mandatory provisions of the PC Act.
b. The preliminary inquiry is not mandatory in
every case under the PC Act. If a superior
officer is in seisin of a source information
report which is both detailed and well-reasoned
and such that any reasonable person would be
of the view that it prima facie discloses the
commission of a cognizable offence, the
preliminary inquiry may be avoided.
c. Section 17 of the PC Act relates specifically to the
investigation process, and not the initial act of
registering the FIR, for which it relies on the
provisions of the CrPC. Hence, it places limitations on
only the investigation; it does not impede the
fundamental duty of the law enforcement agency to
record and register an FIR for cognizable offences.
d. On a harmonious reading of the provisions of the
PC Act and the CrPC, it is manifest that the
Superintendent of Police is competent to direct the
registration of an FIR if he has information about the
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commission of a cognizable offence, punishable
under the PC Act. The former is also competent to
simultaneously direct the Deputy Superintendent of
Police to register an FIR for the offences under the
PC Act, with the understanding that the subsequent
investigation will be subject to the restrictions
outlined in Section 17 of the PC Act. A composite
order to register the FIR and conduct investigation
aligns with the statutory framework of the CrPC and
the PC Act.”
35. In the case of State of Karnataka v. Sri
Channakeshava.H.D. (supra), the Supreme Court reaffirmed that
conducting a preliminary enquiry is not a mandatory prerequisite in
corruption cases. The relevant observation is reproduced
hereunder:
“12. To sum up, this Court has held that in matters
of corruption a preliminary enquiry although
desirable, but is not mandatory. In a case
where a superior officer, based on a detailed
source report disclosing the commission of a
cognizable offence, passes an order for
registration of FIR, the requirement of
preliminary enquiry can be relaxed.”
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[emphasis supplied]
36. In Pradeep Nirankarnath Sharma v. State of Gujarat13, the
legal position in this regard was further explained in furtherance of
what has been held in Lalita Kumari v. Government of U.P. (supra)
as follows:
“13. We have carefully considered the submissions of
the appellant and perused the records. The legal
position regarding the registration of FIRs in cases of
cognizable offences is well-settled. This Court,
in Lalita Kumari, has categorically held that the
registration of an FIR is mandatory under Section
154 CrPC if the information discloses the commission
of a cognizable offence. ...
....
14. The scope of a preliminary inquiry, as clarified in
the said judgment, is limited to situations where the
information received does not prima facie disclose a
cognizable offence but requires verification.
However, in cases where the information
clearly discloses a cognizable offence, the
police have no discretion to conduct a
preliminary inquiry before registering an FIR.
The decision in Lalita Kumari does not create an
13 (2025) 4 SCC 818
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absolute rule that a preliminary inquiry must be
conducted in every case before the registration
of an FIR. Rather, it reaffirms the settled
principle that the police authorities are
obligated to register an FIR when the
information received prima facie discloses a
cognizable offence.
15. In the present case, the allegations against
the appellant pertain to the abuse of official
position and corrupt practices while holding
public office. Such allegations fall squarely
within the category of cognizable offences, and
there exists no legal requirement for a
preliminary inquiry before the registration of an
FIR in such cases.”
[emphasis supplied]
37. While the law clearly establishes that allegations of official
misconduct and corruption constitute cognizable offence and there
is no strict legal necessity for a preliminary enquiry before filing an
FIR, learned Senior Counsel for the DVAC argues that the DVAC
Manual imposes a mandatory requirement for such an initial probe.
Essentially, the argument suggests that even if the general criminal
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law does not demand a preliminary enquiry, the specific procedural
guidelines contained in the DVAC Manual create a separate, binding
obligation to conduct a preliminary enquiry.
38. The Manual of DVAC provides for (i) enquiry and
investigation procedures; and (ii) preliminary enquiries. The
Manual also provides for nature of enquiries/investigations and
authority for taking up enquiries/investigations, which read thus:
“14. Nature of Enquiries/Investigations
The Directorate of Vigilance and Anti-Corruption
undertakes enquiries/investigations into complaints/
information about specific acts of bribery or
corruption and allied malpractices in the exercise of
official authority by Public Servants under the control
of the State Government and also employees of the
Public Undertakings, Corporations set up by the
State Government. Usually, the first enquiry into
a complaint/ information is in the nature of a
Preliminary Enquiry. If the Preliminary Enquiry
discloses material which merits an open probe,
a Detailed Enquiry is taken up . If the material
thrown up in a Preliminary Enquiry or a Detailed
Enquiry makes out a prima facie case for a criminal
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prosecution, a Regular Case is registered under
Section 154 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973,
and investigation taken up in terms of relevant
provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973.
When specific information is received that a
particular Public Servant is demanding money for
discharge of his official duty in a specified instance, a
“Trap” is also attempted.
15. Authority for taking up Enquiries/Investigations
(1) Enquiries and investigations of regular criminal
cases, including traps, may be taken up by the
Directorate of Vigilance Anti-Corruption, in
accordance with the following orders only:-
(i) Preliminary Enquiries against Government
Servants falling under Groups A, B, C and D
(excepting Members of All-India Services, District
Collectors and Heads of Departments) may be taken
up on the orders of the Director of Vigilance and
Anti-Corruption;
(ii) Detailed Enquiries against Government Servants
falling under Groups C and D may be taken up on the
orders of the Director of Vigilance and Anti-
Corruption;
(iii) Detailed Enquiries against Government Servants
falling under Groups A and B (excepting Members of
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All-India Services, District Collectors and Heads of
Departments) may be taken up only with the
concurrence of the Vigilance Commissioner;
(iv) Regular Cases other than Trap Cases may be
registered against Government Servants falling
under Groups A, B, C or D (excepting Members of
All-India Services, District Collectors and Heads of
Departments) only with the prior permission of the
Vigilance Commissioner, provided that where a
Magistrate orders investigation under Section 156(3)
of the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973, no such
prior permission of the Vigilance Commissioner need
be obtained;
(v) Trap cases against Government Servants falling
under Groups C and D may be organised on the
orders of the Superintendents of Police in the
Directorate of Vigilance and Anti-Corruption;
(vi) Trap cases against Government Servants falling
under Groups A and B (excepting Members of All-
India Services, District Collectors and Heads of
Departments) may be organised on the orders of the
Director of Vigilance and Anti-Corruption obtained
through the Additional/Deputy Director of Vigilance
and Anti-Corruption or direct;
and
(vii) In respect of Members of All-India Services,
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District Collectors, Heads of Departments and
Managing Directors/Chief Executives of Statutory
Bodies, Corporations and State owned Companies,
the following procedure will be followed-
(a) the Director of Vigilance and Anti-Corruption
shall not start a Preliminary Enquiry, unless
specifically authorised by the Government in
consultation with the Vigilance Commissioner;
(b) the Government may order Detailed
Enquiries, grant permission to register criminal
cases and trap cases; and
(c) the Vigilance Commissioner may also give
concurrence for Detailed Enquiry, on the basis
of Preliminary Enquiry reports.
(2) The procedure in respect of Government
Servants falling under Groups A and B shall be
followed in the case of employees of Statutory
Bodies, Corporations and State owned Companies
whose starting pay is Rs.1,640 and above per month,
and the procedure in respect of Government
Servants falling under Groups C and D shall be
followed in the case of such employees whose
starting pay is below Rs.1,640/- per month.
18. Scope and procedures
Usually, the first enquiry into a complaint or
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information is in the nature of a Preliminary Enquiry.
This Preliminary Enquiry should be conducted with
the utmost secrecy. Witnesses should normally be
contacted only through sources or otherwise,
indirectly. Where it becomes necessary to contact
them directly, the purpose of enquiry must be
suitably camouflaged. Willingness of witnesses to
make statements may be ascertained, but actual
statements should not be recorded. Departmental
files and other records, including those that may be
available with private sources like Hotels, Lodging
houses, Shops etc., may be looked into.
Departmental records may also be taken into custody
wherever considered desirable in the interest of
preserving any available evidence. Where there is
some difficulty in taking them into custody, the
Investigating Officer may peruse the records in the
Department itself and if a particular record were to
be found important for purposes of further enquiry, a
written requisition should be given to the local
responsible officer of the Department to keep that
particular record in safe custody, under his personal
responsibility, so that the record could be taken over,
at a later stage, when required. Records with private
parties may also be taken into custody, if the parties
do not raise any objection. If objections are raised,
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summons from a Magistrate may be got issued by
filing a written report before the Magistrate,
indicating that an enquiry is being made into the
alleged commission of an offence connected with
bribery, corruption etc., and the need to secure the
records concerned for the purpose of the enquiry.
27. Time Limit
Every Preliminary Enquiry shall be completed
with the greatest possible expedition and a
report submitted to reach the headquarters of
the Directorate of Vigilance and Anti-corruption
in no case later than 2 months from the date of
its registration.”
[emphasis supplied]
39. In the case on hand, Shri V.Thamizhmani, Deputy
Superintendent of Police, Chennai City-III Unit, Vigilance and Anti-
Corruption is the Enquiry Officer of the preliminary enquiry. In his
status report dated 6.4.2026, the said officer stated that upon
receipt of the complaint dated 6.7.2023 from the petitioner Arappor
Iyakkam, the same was forwarded to the Vigilance Commissioner
through a report dated 22.8.2023. The Vigilance Commissioner,
vide letter dated 10.11.2023, directed the Director of Vigilance and
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Anti-Corruption to conduct a detailed enquiry after getting prior
approval from the competent authority. On 22.1.2024, the DVAC
addressed a letter to the Principal Secretary to Government, Energy
Department seeking prior approval for registration of detailed
enquiry. In the report, it has also been stated that since the
complaints sent by the petitioners in W.P. (Crl.) No.396 of 2026 and
W.P.(MD) No.26676 of 2025 are similar to those raised by Arappor
Iyakkam, those two complaints were clubbed together.
40. It is stated that pursuant to the prior approval granted by
the Government on 26.9.2025, the DVAC ordered to register
preliminary enquiry through Memorandum dated 10.10.2025 and,
accordingly, preliminary enquiry was registered against Kasi,
Financial Controller (Purchase), TANGEDCO and taken up for
enquiry. The report also states that during the course of enquiry,
documents were collected, witnesses were examined and the same
were scrutinized. Finally, the officer came to the conclusion that
there is no prima facie evidence to ascertain that between 2021 and
2023, TANGEDCO has awarded tender to various firms for higher
value in the procurement of various capacity of Distribution
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Transformers of a range of specifications started from 25 KVA to
500 KVA and thereby caused loss to the exchequer. The summary
findings are reproduced below:
“1. By comparing the Ex works price as per IEEMA
updation, GeM price and the Board approved price, it
is ascertained that the price difference arrived in
percentage is -0.69% and there is no appreciable
loss to the government and there is no prima facie
evidence to substantiate the loss as alleged by the
petitioner.
2. During the period from 2020 to 2022, bidders
quoted the same rate in the tender process for the
procurement of various categories of Distribution
Transformers.
On perusal of 21 tender documents between 2011-
2020, the quoting of same price is in practice since
long period dating back to 2011. In a specific tender
M-32/2013-14 for the capacity 200 KVA/22KV DT, all
the 25 bidders quoted L1 price and all the bidders
were awarded tender. The quoting of the same price
by bidders is not a sudden practice. Since 2011
many officials would have changed and it shows that
the quoting of same price is for the benefit of all
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small and medium manufacturers rather it has
nothing to do with the officials. There is no
fraudulent or dishonest intention to favour particular
group.
3. If the tenders were rejected, the act of floating the
next tender would require additional time and the
immediate requirements could not be met otherwise.
4. Also, the quoted price of the Distribution
Transformers was in line with the prevailing market
rates per unit.
5. No complaints or objections were raised by any of
the participating bidders regarding this purposes.
6. There were no changes in the technical or
commercial specifications for the procurement of
Distribution Transformers during the period from
2020 to 2022.
7. The above act of quoting same price by the
bidders does not match with any of the ingredients of
cartel like exercising limit, control or attempt to
control the production, distribution, sale or price of,
or trade in goods or provision of services. The TNTIT
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Act 1988 also does not forbid quoting same price.
8. On perusal of the documents and from examining
the SE/MM Tr.Murali, it is found that the TANGEDCO
is procuring the Distribution Transformer with Off
load Tap Circuit Changer and also compared the
quoted price with that of Off Tap circuit changer
Distribution Transformer available in the GeM Portal.
9. Tr.V.Kasi, as a Financial Controller is one of the
member of Tender Scrutinizing Committee. His role
is to offer remarks on the evaluation of the tender
based on commercial specifications. He has no
power to either accept or reject a tender of any
bidder(s).
10. In the process of tender, any tender process as a
whole or any bidder can be rejected by the Board
Level Tender Committee or Board based on the
recommendations of the Tender Committee. All the
decisions taken at any level related to accepting or
disapproving a tender is a collective decision of the
BLTC or the Board consisting of senior IAS officers.
11. From the Vinai Electric Company, the penalty
amount of Rs.95,91,652/- was imposed and based
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on approval in 466th BLTC meeting held on
11.6.2025, the penalty amount was recovered.
Following this, the CMD/TNPDCL in his note approved
on 23.10.2025 accorded approval to accept the
remaining supply of DT’s and to release payment to
the firm which was stopped on 14.7.2023.
12. All the tender process for procurement of
Distribution Transformers except 500
KVA/11KV/433V EEL-2, it is approved by the Board
to issue a 15 days short tender notice instead of 30
days notice though the tender value exceed Rs.2
crores as the proposed materials are very much
essential for achieving the one lakh agricultural
service connections as announced by the
Government of Tamil Nadu and to meet out the
cancelled quantity of recent tender finalized for
procurement of 250 KVA/11 KV/433V EEL-2 DTs by
the TANGEDCO 102nd Board Meeting held on
29.10.2021 (M-09).
13. Further, the CE/MM stated that the Accountant
General Audit has perused the alleged tender files
M-12/2021-22 on 13.09.2023, M-10/2021-22 on
11.10.2023, M-13/2022-23 on 17.10.2023,
M-10/2022-23 on 19.10.2023 and M-11/2021-22 on
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27.10.2023 and has not offered any remarks till
date. The lack of audit objections and lack of
complaints from the bidders indicate procedural
fairness and transparency in the tender process.
14. Electricity acts as an essential service as per
Tamilnadu Essential Services Maintenance Act, 2022,
Section 2(1)(a) describes essential service which
includes (I) any service connected with the supply of
water or electricity. If the procurement of
Distribution Transformers is delayed, the power
supply would be interrupted and it would have
detrimental effect on the society.”
41. Learned counsel for the petitioner in W.P.No.8166 of 2024
argued that the scope of a preliminary enquiry is strictly limited to a
discreet, confidential verification of whether a cognizable offence
exists to justify registration of an FIR. While the Vigilance Manual
mandates a two-month deadline for this process, nearly three years
have passed since the original complaint was filed in this case.
Learned counsel for the petitioners contend that because of this
egregious delay and violation of the prescribed timeline, the Enquiry
Officer's report should be legally disregarded.
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42. From a bare perusal of the complaint dated 6.7.2023 of
Arappor Iyakkam, it is clear that they sought criminal investigation
against the public servants of TANGEDCO, including Kasi (Financial
Controller), firms involved in corruption, Rajesh Lakhoni, Minister
Senthil Balaji and other public servants. However, the preliminary
enquiry, bearing No.PE 118/2025/ TANGEDCO/CC III, was
registered only against V.Kasi. When the complaint is against
various public servants of TANGEDCO, which includes V.Kasi, Rajesh
Lakhoni and Minister Senthil Balaji, it is not known as to why the
Government accorded prior approval for conducting enquiry against
V.Kasi alone by omitting others. The respondent authorities have
failed to provide any explanation or justification for their decision to
refrain from taking action against the other individuals. Despite the
allegations leveled against these parties, the specific reasoning or
evidence that influenced the authorities' choice to exclude them
from the current proceedings remains entirely undisclosed.
43. In the instant case, the complaint was lodged by Arappor
Iyakkam on 6.7.2023. Approval was sought by DVAC for
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conducting detailed enquiry on 22.1.2024. Approval for preliminary
enquiry was granted on 26.9.2025 against Kasi alone. The act of
the DVAC in seeking approval to conduct detailed enquiry is
unwarranted, as what is mandated is only a preliminary enquiry. At
the stage of receiving a complaint, all that the officer has to see is
whether a cognizable offence has been made out or not. The
Supreme Court time and again held that when the allegation is of
corruption, that too, against a public servant, such allegations fall
squarely within the category of cognizable offences, and there
exists no legal requirement for a preliminary inquiry before the
registration of an FIR in such cases.
44. At this juncture, it is apposite to refer to Clause 20 of the
Vigilance Manual, which reads thus:
“20. Conversion into Detailed Enquiry
When an Investigating Officer finds oral or
documentary evidence forthcoming in a
Preliminary Enquiry, he should report this
immediately to Headquarters and seek approval
for conversion of the Preliminary Enquiry into a
Detailed Enquiry unless it is decided to seek
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permission to register a Regular Case.”
[emphasis supplied]
45. In the case on hand, while the DVAC sought permission to
conduct detailed enquiry against Kasi and many others on
22.01.2024, the Energy Secretary has accorded prior approval to
conduct a preliminary enquiry as against Kasi alone. While the
complaint has named several public servants and DVAC sought prior
approval for detailed enquiry against several public servants, it is
not clear why the Government accorded prior approval against one
public servant alone and, that too, only a preliminary enquiry as
against detailed enquiry sought by DVAC.
46. From the clauses of the Vigilance Manual quoted above, it
is explicit that there is a difference in scope between a preliminary
enquiry and a detailed enquiry. Thus, when the DVAC had studied
the complaint and documents and had clearly asked for approval to
conduct a detailed enquiry, the Government granted approval only
for preliminary enquiry, that too, against Kasi alone. The excessive
and unjustified delay in granting permission, coupled with the
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decision to downgrade the investigation from a detailed enquiry
[without registration of an FIR] to a preliminary enquiry and limit its
scope solely to Kasi, strongly suggests an attempt by the
government and relevant authorities to suppress the truth and
these actions create a reasonable suspicion of a cover-up designed
to shield high-ranking officials and political figures, thereby
undermining the integrity of a free, independent, and fair
investigation.
47. Clause 27 of the Vigilance Manual postulates that every
preliminary enquiry shall be completed with the greatest possible
expedition and a report submitted to reach the headquarters of the
Directorate of Vigilance and Anti-corruption in no case later than
two months from the date of its registration. Even assuming
approval was granted for preliminary enquiry on 26.9.2025, DVAC
has dropped action on the complaint on 4.4.2026, much beyond the
time frame contemplated under the Vigilance Manual and the DVAC
has failed to provide any justification for this delay, leaving the
extended period of inaction entirely unexplained.
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48. At this juncture, it is apposite to point out that a bare
perusal of the report of the DVAC dated 4.4.2026 shows that as
many as 44 witnesses have been examined and 68 documents have
been obtained. Each of the allegation was dealt with in detail, as if
the authority is conducting a detailed enquiry into the matter. In a
73-Page preliminary enquiry report, the DVAC holds that there is
insufficient oral and documentary evidence to substantiate the
allegations against Kasi and further action is dropped. Under the
guise of preliminary enquiry, the DVAC ex facie appears to have
conducted a detailed enquiry. In any event, the scope of a
preliminary enquiry is inherently narrow and must not be permitted
to escalate into a "mini-trial" prior to the formal registration of an
offence. Its legal purpose is strictly confined to verifying the
existence of a cognizable offence, rather than serving as an
exhaustive evidentiary hearing or a premature adjudication of the
merits of the case.
49. If the DVAC was of the view that the complaint failed to
establish a cognizable offence, then conducting an exhaustive
investigation involving 44 witnesses and 68 documents was entirely
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unnecessary and legally unjustifiable. Such extensive action by the
DVAC clearly demonstrates that they moved far beyond the limited
scope of a preliminary enquiry and instead engaged in a full-scale
probe before even registering the case. It is ostensibly clear that
the DVAC utilized the preliminary enquiry as a mere pretext to
conduct a full-scale investigation without the legally required
registration of an FIR.
50. That apart, we find that the timeline for providing prior
approval as per Section 17A of the Prevention of Corruption Act is
only three months with provision of extension by a maximum of one
month. The huge delay in providing prior approval is unexplained.
The action of the DVAC is in direct conflict with the legal principles
enunicated by the decision of the Supreme Court in Vijay Rajmohan
v. CBI14. In the said decision, the Supreme Court held that the new
proviso to Section 19 of the Prevention of Corruption Act mandating
that the competent authority shall endeavour to convey the decision
on the proposal for sanction within a period of three months can
only be read and understood as a compelling statutory obligation;
14 (2023) 1 SCC 329
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and that t he sanctioning authority must bear in mind that public
confidence in the maintenance of the rule of law, which is
fundamental in the administration of justice, is at stake here. By
causing delay in considering the request for sanction, the
sanctioning authority stultifies judicial scrutiny, thereby vitiating the
process of determination of the allegations against the corrupt
official. The Supreme Court ultimately held thus:
“36. Accountability has three essential constituent
dimensions : (i) responsibility, (ii) answerability, and
(iii) enforceability. Responsibility requires the
identification of duties and performance obligations
of individuals in authority and with authorities.
Answerability requires reasoned decision-making so
that those affected by their decisions, including the
public, are aware of the same. Enforceability requires
appropriate corrective and remedial action against
lack of responsibility and accountability to be taken.
Accountability has a corrective function, making it
possible to address individual or collective
grievances. It enables action against officials or
institutions for dereliction of duty. It also has a
preventive function that helps to identify the
procedure or policy which has become non-functional
and to improve upon it.
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37. Accountability, as a principle of administrative
law, when applied to the issue that we are dealing
with, translates in this manner. Responsibility for
grant of sanction for prosecution of a public servant
under Section 19 of the PC Act is always vested in
the appointing authority. Identification of appointing
authority is always clear and straightforward. The
2018 Amendment specifically obligates the
appointing authority to convey the decision within
three months and to provide for the reasons to be
recorded in writing for the extended period of one
month. This amendment, in fact, evidences
legislative incorporation of answerability, the second
constituent of accountability. For enforceability,
Parliament has expressly empowered the Central
Vigilance Commission under Section 8(1)(f) of the
CVC Act to review the progress of the applications
pending with the competent authorities, and this
function must take within its sweep the power to deal
with the consequences of failure of the competent
authority to comply with its statutory duty. This
power and responsibility of CVC is clear from the
provisions of the statute and decipherable from
functions entrusted to it.
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38. In conclusion, we hold that upon expiry of
the three months and the additional one-month
period, the aggrieved party, be it the
complainant, accused or victim, would be
entitled to approach the writ court concerned .
They are entitled to seek appropriate remedies,
including directions for action on the request
for sanction and for the corrective measure on
accountability that the sanctioning authority
bears. This is especially crucial if the non-grant
of sanction is withheld without reason,
resulting in the stifling of a genuine case of
corruption. Simultaneously, CVC shall enquire into
the matter in the exercise of its powers under
Sections 8(1)(e) and (f) and take such corrective
action as it is empowered under the CVC Act.
39. The second issue is answered by holding that the
period of three months, extended by one more
month for legal consultation, is mandatory. The
consequence of non-compliance with this mandatory
requirement shall not be quashing of the criminal
proceeding for that very reason. The competent
authority shall be accountable for the delay and
be subject to judicial review and administrative
action by CVC under Section 8(1)(f) of the CVC
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Act.”
[emphasis supplied]
51. We also find that in the complaint of Arappor Iyakkam a
specific allegation was made against Rajesh Lakhoni, the Chairman
and Managing Director that he had violated the service regulation of
the Board in inducting Kasi back without placing the issue before
the Board as per 17(g)(v) and (vi); and that when the Tender
Scrutinizing Committee approved the fraudulent and corrupt
tenders, wherein the bidders have quoted the same rate, the said
Rajesh Lakhoni, as Chairman and Managing Director and member of
the Board, approved the tenders without questioning the collusive
bidding. It is alleged that instead of cancelling the tender and
taking action against the corrupt and collusive tenderers, he played
a very active role in aiding and abetting the corruption by getting
approval for the corrupt tenders in the Board of TANGEDCO.
52. It is also seen from the complaint of Arappor Iyakkam
that allegations were levelled against the Minister, Senthil Balaji, to
the effect that V.Kasi, the key conspirator of corruption, appears to
be close associate of Senthil Balaji and is known to have carried out
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his daily work from the residence of the Minister and this prima
facie indicates that V.Kasi has carried out the illegalities at the
behest/influence of the then Minister Senthil Balaji.
53. While the DVAC sought permission to conduct detailed
enquiry against the Kasi and many others on 22.1.2024, the
Government have accorded prior approval on 26.9.2025 to conduct
a preliminary enquiry against only one public servant, Kasi. The
nearly 20-month delay in granting approval, left entirely
unexplained by the authorities, constitutes a significant procedural
lapse that cannot be overlooked or treated as inconsequential. Such
a prolonged period of inaction without justification raises serious
concerns regarding the legitimacy of the process and must be given
substantial weight in evaluating the case. Further, the lack of any
justification for failing to initiate action against the other individuals
named in the complaint strongly suggests that the matter was
handled improperly. This unexplained omission makes it clear that
the procedural integrity of the investigation was compromised,
indicating that the complaint was not dealt with in a transparent or
lawful manner. Therefore, the petitioners, in our considered view,
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are justified in approaching the writ court.
54. We also notice that the complaint was pending from 2023.
The petitioner, Arappor Iyakkam, participated in the enquiry on
1.4.2026 and submitted documents on 2.4.2026, when the matter
was being finally heard by this court. It is seen that, all of a sudden,
on 4.4.2026, the so-called preliminary enquiry was concluded
rendering a finding that there is no material to substantiate the
allegations against Kasi and, therefore, further action is dropped.
The fact that a complaint languishing for nearly three years was
suddenly concluded while the matter was already under final
hearing before the court is highly suspicious. This abrupt haste to
close the proceedings at such a critical legal juncture further
intensifies doubts regarding the transparency and impartial
functioning of the DVAC.
55. The Court finds that the Government's decision to restrict
the enquiry solely to Kasi, combined with the DVAC’s conduct in
performing a full-scale investigation under the guise of a
preliminary enquiry, is untenable. Considering the fact that the
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matter was pending consideration for over three years and was
abruptly concluded while the court was hearing the case, coupled
with unexplained delays that exceeded all legal timelines, we are of
the view that the entire process is fundamentally biased and devoid
of the essential standards of fairness.
56. In light of the aforementioned reasons, we find ourselves
unable to endorse the process undertaken by the DVAC or to accept
the Government’s unexplained failure to accord sanction against the
other individuals named in the complaints. Consequently, we are of
the firm view that this matter warrants referral to an independent
agency. Our aforesaid conclusion is strictly confined to the
procedural irregularities involving the selective and delayed grant of
sanction, as well as the questionable manner in which the
proceedings were terminated, it does not extend to, nor reflect any
opinion on, the underlying merits of the tender process.
Consequently, we find it unnecessary to elaborate on the various
judicial precedents cited by counsel on either side concerning the
intricacies of the tendering process or the issue of parallel pricing.
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57. At this stage, we feel it seemly to refer to a decision of a
Division Bench of the Bombay High Court in Sanjay Dinanath Tiwari
(supra), wherein it was held that it is court’s duty to play corrective
role, when there is apathy, partiality, obstruction in investigation
process or undue pressure from powerful interests. In that case,
the Court directed the memorandum of petition to be treated as FIR
of the petitioner therein lodged before the Commissioner of Police,
Mumbai and directed the Commissioner of Police to continue with
the investigation. On appeal, the Supreme Court refused to
interfere with the directive of the High Court to treat the writ
petition as FIR and ultimately disposed of the appeal with a
direction to place final report before the Magistrate/Special Court to
proceed further.
58. We shall now refer to the decision the Supreme Court in
the case of Save Mon Region Federation and another (supra), on
which heavy reliance was placed by Mr.V.Raghavachari. In the said
decision, the Supreme Court adumbrated the applicable standard
for invoking court-directed investigation and held thus:
“6. The petitioners seek a direction for investigation
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by the CBI or, in the alternative, the constitution of a
SIT. It is well settled that, in exercise of
jurisdiction under Article 32 of the Constitution,
this Court possesses the constitutional
authority to direct that an investigation be
carried out by an agency other than the
ordinary State investigating machinery,
including the CBI, where the circumstances of
the case so warrant. At the same time, the
jurisprudence of this Court has consistently
emphasised that such power is to be exercised with
restraint.
7. In State of W.B. v. Committee for Protection of
Democratic Rights, (2010) 3 SCC 571, the
Constitutional Bench of this Court held that a
direction by a constitutional court to the CBI to
investigate a cognizable offence within the territory
of a State is not barred merely for want of State
consent, and such a direction does not violate the
federal structure or the doctrine of separation of
powers. The Court also underscored that
constitutional courts, as protectors of civil liberties,
have not only the power but also the obligation to
protect fundamental rights, including under Article
21. However, the same decision cautions that the
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very amplitude of the power under Articles 32 and
226 of the Constitution of India requires great care in
its exercise. It has been reiterated that a direction to
the CBI is not to be made as a matter of routine or
merely because allegations have been levelled
against the local police. The extraordinary power
is to be exercised sparingly and cautiously, and
in exceptional situations where it becomes
necessary to lend credibility and instil
confidence in the investigation, or where the
incident has wider ramifications, or where such
a course is necessary for doing complete justice
and enforcing fundamental rights.
...
8. The governing principle is that transfer of
investigation to the CBI is justified only in rare and
exceptional cases where it is necessary to do justice
between the parties and to instil confidence in the
public mind, or where the investigation by the State
police lacks credibility and it is necessary to secure a
fair, honest and complete investigation. Illustratively,
such transfer may be warranted where high officials
of the State are involved, where the accusation is
against top officials of the investigating agency such
that they may influence the course of investigation,
or where the investigation is prima facie found to be
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tainted or biased.
9. These principles also make it clear that this Court,
while considering a request for CBI investigation or
constitution of an SIT, does not undertake an
adjudication on culpability. The Court examines
whether the material placed discloses a prima facie
case which necessitates entrustment of investigation
to an independent agency so that the rule of law is
upheld and the investigative process commands
confidence, particularly where the status or authority
of persons implicated may reasonably give rise to
apprehensions about the impartiality of the ordinary
investigative process. In determining whether the
extraordinary jurisdiction to entrust
investigation to the CBI should be exercised,
the Court ordinarily examines whether the
material placed before it discloses (i) a prima
facie case raising serious questions of legality,
(ii) circumstances suggesting that investigation
by the ordinary State machinery may not
inspire confidence where high public
functionaries are implicated, and (iii) the
necessity of an independent inquiry to preserve
public confidence in the rule of law.”
[emphasis supplied]
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59. In the present case, the procedures adopted by both the
State and the DVAC are so heavily marked by unfairness that they
fail to inspire any public confidence, creating an absolute necessity
for an independent enquiry to ensure the integrity of the
investigation. All the allegations levelled in the complaints concern
public contracting under the authority of the State and are directed
against persons who occupy high constitutional and political office
in the State. In such circumstances, leaving the matter to be
investigated by agencies that function under the administrative
control of the State would raise a serious and reasonable
apprehension, in the public mind, about institutional independence.
The credibility of the process is as important as its eventual
outcome. Where a case concerns the integrity of public
procurement and involves allegations of conflict of interest at the
highest levels, an investigation must be not only fair, but must also
appear fair.
60. We, therefore, allow the writ petitions with the following
directions:
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(i) The investigation pertaining to the
complaints lodged by the petitioners are
hereby transferred to the Central Bureau of
Investigation;
(ii) The DVAC is directed to handover all the
material available with them and their report
to the Investigating Agency appointed within
two weeks from the date of uploading of this
order;
(iii) On such handing over of all the
documents and evidence by the DVAC, the
Investigating Agency appointed shall conduct
de novo investigation, as it deems fit, and
proceed further in accordance with law;
(iv) The State Government, TANGEDCO and
DVAC are directed to extend full cooperation
to the Investigating Agency to conduct
effective investigation and ensure that all
documents are placed before the
Investigating Agency to proceed further in
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the matter; and
(v) The Investigating Agency appointed shall
take earnest steps to conclude the
proceedings as expeditiously as possible and
in accordance with law.
61. We make it clear that the observations made in this
judgment are limited only for the purpose of deciding whether
independent investigation is warranted and shall not be construed
as finding on the merits of the allegations and they shall not
prejudice any person in any proceedings that may arise.
62. There shall be no order as to costs. Consequently, interim
application stands closed.
The Registry is directed to communicate a copy of this order
to the Joint Director and Head of Zone, Central Bureau of
Investigation, III Floor, E.V.K.Sampath Building, College Road,
Chennai – 600 006, the Investigating Agency appointed vide this
order.
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(SUSHRUT ARVIND DHARMADHIKARI, CJ) (G.ARUL MURUGAN,J)
29.04.2026
Index : Yes
Neutral Citation : Yes
sasi
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To:
1.The Director
Directorate of Vigilance and
Anti-Corruption,
No.293, MKN Road, Alandur,
Chennai-600 016.
2.The Secretary to Government,
Public Department,
Secretariat, Chennai-600 009.
3.The Superintendent of Police
Chennai City Range,
Vigilance and Anti-Corruption,
Chennai-600 016
4.The Chairman and Managing Director,
Tamil Nadu Generation and Distribution
Corporation Limited (TANGEDCO),
144, Anna Salai,
Chenani-600 002
5.The Tender Inviting Authority
Tamil Nadu Generation and Distribution
Corporation Limited (TANGEDCO),
144, Anna Salai,
Chennai-600 002
6.The Tender Scrutiny Committee
Tamil Nadu Generation and Distribution
Corporation Limited (TANGEDCO)
144,Anna Salai, Chennai-600 002
7.The Chief Secretary to Government,
The Secretariat,
Fort St.George, Chennai-600 009.
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THE HON'BLE CHIEF JUSTICE
AND
G.ARUL MURUGAN, J.
(sasi)
W.P.No.8166 of 2024; W.P. Crl. No.396 of 2025
and W.P.(MD) No.26676 of 2025
29.04.2026
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